Matthew 15:21-28 - did Jesus then know that the Gospel was for all nations?

[kvanlaan]

I have always assumed He did. Or was it part of the Father's will that was related later? I am sure there is an easy answer to this and I am equally sure that I don't know it.

 

[Contra_Mundum]

This is a teaching-moment for the disciples, many of whom are "men of their times," and prejudiced. Jesus' question draws a faith-statement from the lips of the woman, thus encouraging her faith when he commends her answer. And this demonstration subverts the disciple's innate prejudice (which at first Jesus' statement seems to affirm).

One also must recognize there is a redemptive-history progression that is also being acknowledged here. The gospel is "to the Jew first, but also to the Greek."

 

[kvanlaan]

Thank you!