a1689baptist
Puritan Board Freshman
My very first post (gasp!)
In conversation with my charismatic neighbor the other day, he stated that he didn't think of Christ as a prophet (but that prophets exist today). I was tempted to say that he needed to read Hebrews, where Christ is named Prophet, Priest, and King. I'm glad I didn't, of course; it ain't there!
That got me trying to be a good Berean. I was able to find ample evidence for my point using both OT and NT passages. In Matthew 21:33ff, there is the parable of the wicked farmers:
33“Hear another parable: There was a certain landowner who planted a vineyard and set a hedge around it, dug a winepress in it and built a tower. And he leased it to vinedressers and went into a far country. 34 Now when vintage-time drew near, he sent his servants to the vinedressers, that they might receive its fruit. 35 And the vinedressers took his servants, beat one, killed one, and stoned another. 36 Again he sent other servants, more than the first, and they did likewise to them. 37 Then last of all he sent his son to them, saying, ‘They will respect my son.’ 38 But when the vinedressers saw the son, they said among themselves, ‘This is the heir. Come, let us kill him and seize his inheritance.’
It is clear that the owner of the vineyard is the Father, the vineyard is the nation of Israel, the servants are the prophets of the theocracy, the son is Christ, and the wicked farmers are the generations of the nation's leaders. In reading Robert Reymond's A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith, Reymond gave me more than I had bargained for regarding this passage of Scripture. On p. 221f, in his discussion of the parable, Reymond says that Jesus was not just a prophet but the final prophet:
Reymond goes on with great logic, much of which seems to depend upon the meaning of that word hysteron
Dynamite!! This should be the answer not only to my charismatic friend, but also to those who hold that Joseph Smith or Mohammed were prophets.
But wait a minute! This word seems to have a number of different renderings in English, depending upon the Bible translation used. Among them, "last of all" (NIV, KJV); "but afterward" (NASB); "finally" (Amplified, NLT, NKJV); "so" (New Century Version). Because of these different renderings, this key word is not particularly persuasive in showing that Jesus was the final prophet.
Additionally, I understand that all of those who spoke under the illumination of the Holy Spirit in the OT and NT were in some sense prophets. Do we then have to look at the ages of the other NT writers to see whether Jesus was the youngest/last among them? Can that even be determined?
The passage seems powerful. Can anyone provide references or thoughts that can strengthen my understanding?
In conversation with my charismatic neighbor the other day, he stated that he didn't think of Christ as a prophet (but that prophets exist today). I was tempted to say that he needed to read Hebrews, where Christ is named Prophet, Priest, and King. I'm glad I didn't, of course; it ain't there!
That got me trying to be a good Berean. I was able to find ample evidence for my point using both OT and NT passages. In Matthew 21:33ff, there is the parable of the wicked farmers:
33“Hear another parable: There was a certain landowner who planted a vineyard and set a hedge around it, dug a winepress in it and built a tower. And he leased it to vinedressers and went into a far country. 34 Now when vintage-time drew near, he sent his servants to the vinedressers, that they might receive its fruit. 35 And the vinedressers took his servants, beat one, killed one, and stoned another. 36 Again he sent other servants, more than the first, and they did likewise to them. 37 Then last of all he sent his son to them, saying, ‘They will respect my son.’ 38 But when the vinedressers saw the son, they said among themselves, ‘This is the heir. Come, let us kill him and seize his inheritance.’
It is clear that the owner of the vineyard is the Father, the vineyard is the nation of Israel, the servants are the prophets of the theocracy, the son is Christ, and the wicked farmers are the generations of the nation's leaders. In reading Robert Reymond's A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith, Reymond gave me more than I had bargained for regarding this passage of Scripture. On p. 221f, in his discussion of the parable, Reymond says that Jesus was not just a prophet but the final prophet:
"From the word hysteron, finally, ... it is clear that Jesus represents himself as the last, the final ambassador, after whose sending nothing more can be done." (p. 222)
Reymond goes on with great logic, much of which seems to depend upon the meaning of that word hysteron
Dynamite!! This should be the answer not only to my charismatic friend, but also to those who hold that Joseph Smith or Mohammed were prophets.
But wait a minute! This word seems to have a number of different renderings in English, depending upon the Bible translation used. Among them, "last of all" (NIV, KJV); "but afterward" (NASB); "finally" (Amplified, NLT, NKJV); "so" (New Century Version). Because of these different renderings, this key word is not particularly persuasive in showing that Jesus was the final prophet.
Additionally, I understand that all of those who spoke under the illumination of the Holy Spirit in the OT and NT were in some sense prophets. Do we then have to look at the ages of the other NT writers to see whether Jesus was the youngest/last among them? Can that even be determined?
The passage seems powerful. Can anyone provide references or thoughts that can strengthen my understanding?
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