De Jager
Puritan Board Junior
Is there room in this passage (Matthew 28:19-20) for the infants of believing parents? I believe there is, but would just like some additional clarity.
I took a look at the interlinear site (https://biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/28.htm)
It seems to be rendered as:
"disciple all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the father and the son..."
This seems to indicate that Jesus is not setting out to give us a formula on "who" exactly is to be baptized, or setting out to give us a definition on who is a "disciple" but seems to be emphasizing that the disciples are to go into the world and baptize the "nations"; that is, the emphasis seems to be on the spread of the gospel to all the ends of the world.
Thus, this passage does not seem to be of much use in the argument against paedobaptism.
Thoughts?
I took a look at the interlinear site (https://biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/28.htm)
It seems to be rendered as:
"disciple all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the father and the son..."
This seems to indicate that Jesus is not setting out to give us a formula on "who" exactly is to be baptized, or setting out to give us a definition on who is a "disciple" but seems to be emphasizing that the disciples are to go into the world and baptize the "nations"; that is, the emphasis seems to be on the spread of the gospel to all the ends of the world.
Thus, this passage does not seem to be of much use in the argument against paedobaptism.
Thoughts?