Matthew 9:24 'make room, for the girl is not dead, but sleeping'

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Alex Foo

Puritan Board Freshman
Dear brothers and sisters

Hi =)

I have a question in my reading on Matthew 9 today. When Jesus said 'the girl is not dead, but sleeping', is there any exegetical insight to understand the state of the soul after a person died physically?

I'm referring to soul sleep, a concept which is probably easily refuted because it is mentioned by Paul that

2 Cor 5:8
We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.

I want to understand the meaning of 'dead', but 'sleeping'.

Also, it'd be good if someone could shed light on the popular creed which reads

'(Jesus) descended to hell, on the third day He rose again'

The Bible is silent concerning the state of Jesus during that three days. I think it is erroneous to say that the Lord continues to suffer in hell, a doctrine which is so bad, because all works of redemption were accomplished on the cross when He said 'it is finished'.

Any help, appreciate =)
 
I can add some information about that line in the Apostle's Creed. The earliest known version of the creed is from about 150 AD. It did not contain that line nor a few other lines. The longer version of the creed is from about 460 AD and has that line.

Orr, James. "Apostles' Creed, The", International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia.
Blue Letter Bible. 1913. 5 May, 2003. Accessed 29 Apr 2015.
<http://www.blbclassic.org/search/Dictionary/viewtopic.cfm?topic=IT0000620>

For reference, the Nicene Creed of 381 AD also does not contain this line.

This line also suffers from the same problem many English translations create when they use the English word "hell" but do not distinguish if the original language used the word for place of the dead or the word for the place of eternal punishment.
 
I want to understand the meaning of 'dead', but 'sleeping'.

From our perspective, death is irreparable and irreversible. It is final.

But for the one who upholds "all things by the word of his power," death is conquerable and reversible.

Everyone knew the girl was dead. She wasn't coming back. But for the Son of Man, it was as easy to bring her back as it would be to wake her from sleep.

I don't think he is commenting on the state of being in death, but rather, he was demonstrating his power over life.
 
thank you. There is much light now.

I am currently attending the methodist (still quite conservative in East Malaysia, and the 'best' in my area) church and need to recite that Apostle's Creed. When it's translated to Chinese it does carry the meaning of 'Sheol', means the place of the dead.

So, can we safely say that during the three days when Jesus died, Jesus went to sheol? Apparently I saw that people are trying to link Eph 4:8-10 and 1 Peter 3:18-20 to try to make sense of what's happening 'down there'.

More light will be appreciated =)
 
can we safely say that during the three days when Jesus died, Jesus went to sheol?

Lk.23:43 "And he said to him, 'Truly, I say to you, today you will be with me in Paradise.'"

Some folks try to make "Paradise" into something other than heaven and the blessed presence of God. No, it's heaven. Jesus is not saying Paradise=the grave or some spiritual element to it.

Eph.4:9, "Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?" This should not be taken to mean that Christ went down to hell in death (in metaphysical terms) either to suffer more (the cross itself is the place of spiritual abandonment, the wrath of God, the terror of hell), or even to tip over Satan on his throne and bust out various prisoners. It is enough (and biblical) to recognize that this could just be a reference to the Incarnation through the womb of Mary (see Ps.139:15) or simply to the basic grave that encloses our Lord (cf. Ps.63:9). That place is "all the way down" as far as the Incarnation of his Adamic (non-glorified) flesh goes--he completely identifies with us even unto death. The point of the passage is that the same Lord who came down from heaven returns victorious above.

1Pet.3:19, "By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison," does not refer (though some have interpreted it so) to Christ preaching after his death to entities in hell. But to Christ "in the Spirit" (v18) who long before the present day and pending judgment went and preached in the days of Noah (v20), in whom was the same Holy Spirit, to sinners--most of whom ignored his message of judgment. And they are now in prison a long time, and will never get out of there. But not because they had no warning; and so neither will sinners today who do not heed similar, even more urgent warnings.
 
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thank you. There is much light now.

I am currently attending the methodist (still quite conservative in East Malaysia, and the 'best' in my area) church and need to recite that Apostle's Creed. When it's translated to Chinese it does carry the meaning of 'Sheol', means the place of the dead.

So, can we safely say that during the three days when Jesus died, Jesus went to sheol? Apparently I saw that people are trying to link Eph 4:8-10 and 1 Peter 3:18-20 to try to make sense of what's happening 'down there'.

More light will be appreciated =)

Some churches prefer to recite the creed without the line that in English is usually said as, "He descended into hell." Others do recite the line, but this does not mean they believe Jesus went to hell (or "sheol") after he died. Scripture is quite clear that he did not.

If you use this line in the creed, you should not take the structure of the creed as chronological at this point. Rather, think of the creed as describing the humiliation of Jesus in increasing steps. The greatest humiliation and suffering of Jesus was his bearing the full punishment for sin. That's the reason for the line, "He descended into hell." It shows that Jesus took the full punishment for sin. But this did not happen after he died; rather, it happened earlier, on the cross.
 
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