davenporter
Puritan Board Freshman
I have a question regarding a few things as I have been learning more about the differences between ordinary providence and miracles. Also, different people may have different definitions of what a miracle is versus what a providence is, so please give your definition if it differs from mine, and feel free to correct my definitions if you think they are wrong. Also feel free to direct me to any online resources you think may be helpful to me.
(Ordinary) Providence: God's most holy, wise, and powerful preserving and governing all His creatures and all their actions through visibly non-supernatural means.
Miracle: A special work of God through a visibly supernatural means. (Is a miracle necessarily a sign?)
1. As I am presently working through Jonah, I am interested in others' thoughts on whether God's providence of the great fish involved His usage of a miracle or whether it was all ordinary providence, especially regarding Jonah's survival for 3 days. Jesus said it was a sign, but I don't know that that necessarily implies it was a miracle.
2. Is it Biblically possible that in this present age someone may be physically healed of an ailment instantaneously upon being prayed for? My wife, whom I trust, claims this has happened to her. If God may act in such a way to heal someone like this, could that have truly happened and be an ordinary providence, since nothing visibly supernatural happened, but she experienced full and final relief from the pain? It certainly didn't function as a "sign" in any way attesting to anyones' "apostolicity" -- there was no magic involved, just a prayer to God.
Okay, I think those are enough questions. Feel free to dissect my post and correct all my faulty thinking. Just don't be mean about it! Thanks in advance!
(Ordinary) Providence: God's most holy, wise, and powerful preserving and governing all His creatures and all their actions through visibly non-supernatural means.
Miracle: A special work of God through a visibly supernatural means. (Is a miracle necessarily a sign?)
1. As I am presently working through Jonah, I am interested in others' thoughts on whether God's providence of the great fish involved His usage of a miracle or whether it was all ordinary providence, especially regarding Jonah's survival for 3 days. Jesus said it was a sign, but I don't know that that necessarily implies it was a miracle.
2. Is it Biblically possible that in this present age someone may be physically healed of an ailment instantaneously upon being prayed for? My wife, whom I trust, claims this has happened to her. If God may act in such a way to heal someone like this, could that have truly happened and be an ordinary providence, since nothing visibly supernatural happened, but she experienced full and final relief from the pain? It certainly didn't function as a "sign" in any way attesting to anyones' "apostolicity" -- there was no magic involved, just a prayer to God.
Okay, I think those are enough questions. Feel free to dissect my post and correct all my faulty thinking. Just don't be mean about it! Thanks in advance!