Coram Deo
Puritan Board Junior
Does God ever allow for Sin, even within a Dispensation of time? I have always heard that Christ did away with the divorce clause of the Old Covenant, But did he really? Did Moses allow for divorce outside of sexual immorality? I am starting to believe that Christ did not do away with the Mosaic Clause of divorce at all but bringing it back to it's original meaning.... The Pharisee's allowed divorce for everything under the Sun, but neither Christ nor the Laws of God through Moses allowed for divorce except for sexually immorality. I am not going to answer the question about remarriage right now but it seems that in both covenants, God allows for seperation for sexual immorality but they aleast should strive to keep the marriage together.....
Matthew 19:7-9
They say unto him, WHy did Moses hen command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your heart suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornincation, and shall marry another, commiteth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Deuteronomy 24:1
When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
What I have found interesting is that the term "Uncleaness in her" is hebrew terminology for "Matters of Nakedness", or in other words Adultery.....
So Christ or Moses through God did not allow for some temporary dispensation of Sin in the Old Covenant. It is the same as in the New Covenant. Christ was bring the law back into conformity with the law of God for which the Pharisees had corrupted. No Man can put away his wife except for sexual immorality... God's law is Holy and Perfect and is unchangable in both covenants. God does not allow for sin and can not and does not tolerate sin for any reason, not even for a dispensation......
"Be Holy For I am Holy"
Matthew 19:7-9
They say unto him, WHy did Moses hen command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your heart suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornincation, and shall marry another, commiteth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Deuteronomy 24:1
When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
What I have found interesting is that the term "Uncleaness in her" is hebrew terminology for "Matters of Nakedness", or in other words Adultery.....
So Christ or Moses through God did not allow for some temporary dispensation of Sin in the Old Covenant. It is the same as in the New Covenant. Christ was bring the law back into conformity with the law of God for which the Pharisees had corrupted. No Man can put away his wife except for sexual immorality... God's law is Holy and Perfect and is unchangable in both covenants. God does not allow for sin and can not and does not tolerate sin for any reason, not even for a dispensation......
"Be Holy For I am Holy"