I am not so much interested in the Biblical teaching on particular grace but whether, from a logical standpoint, grace must be limited in scope to even be grace at all. In other words,, if God's grace was common to all, could it even be called grace? Grace is commonly defined as 'unmerited favor'. Well, doesn't the word 'favor' imply some kind of partiality or advantage? If grace is partial or advantageous then mustn't it also be 'particular'?