RamistThomist
Puritanboard Clerk
I know the NT writers primarily used the LXX, but where did they also use the Hebrew manuscripts?
Follow along with the video below to see how to install our site as a web app on your home screen.
Note: This feature may not be available in some browsers.
I have a paper on all the quotations of Hebrews, if you would like to read it.
No problem, here it is.
I hesitate to intrude on this conversation but was there a copy of all OT books in Greek acknowledged as the LXX or were there some OT books translated into Greek?
I am inclined to notice discrepancies with the LXX and note that the Hebrew is the original. Where there are discrepancies it suggests that the NT writers translated the Hebrew into Greek - sometimes in agreement with the LXX sometimes differing.
The Hebrew was the original
I struggle when told that all translations have merit. I tend to think that the most literal translation of the original text should be what we strive for. I feel the same when weighing up the Hebrew "original" with the Greek translations. The Hebrew is the original inspired text, it may not be as transparent as we might wish but it is way closer to the textus recepticus(?) than any uninspired Jewish translation, no?
One point of clarification. On page 2 under Hebrews 1:5, you say the LXX at that point is a fairly literal translation of the MT. Did the MT exist at that time, or was that a proto-MT?