Old covenant saints in the NC/covenant of grace

That is a helpful addition to the discussion and I agree with this though one would have to clarify what is being referred to by the Covenant of Grace - is it the eternal decree (Covenant of Redemption) or the fulfillment in time at the cross?

According to Benjamin Keach they are one and the same covenant, and the covenant of grace is one and the same to all the elect:


Given he was a "1689 Baptist" I would think his view is significant. He did not see any need to reformulate covenant theology in order to hold to his "Baptist" distinctives.


Personally, I don’t see how a Covenant of Grace instituted in Gen. 3:15 solves the issue of Christ’s future death being retroactively applied before it occurs in history. Faith is always the key element in God bestowing grace to man. Faith is a response of trust to God’s spoken promises and a confidence in the veracity of God’s character in being truthful to His promises and having the sovereign power to carry them out in time. Isn’t “faith” the primary “means” God conveys the grace of salvation?

Faith itself requires means to come to it, i.e., the covenanted word. All facets of salvation are brought together and well ordered so as to make them sure to the elect in the covenant of grace. It is this covenant of grace that "solves the issue." It brings Christ to the elect and the elect to Christ. There is no retroactive application since Christ is slain in the sacrifices which are received by faith. The elect were looking forward by means of the covenant.
 
Faith is a response of trust to God’s spoken promises and a confidence in the veracity of God’s character in being truthful to His promises and having the sovereign power to carry them out in time. Isn’t “faith” the primary “means” God conveys the grace of salvation?

It is. Always has been. Always will be. Some are honestly asking questions here; others are not.

What does this mean -- not unadministered? If two negatives make a positive then this means it was administered.

Sigh. Yes, administered, correct. When I said that, I was speaking in our preset day meaning Christ has come and the CoG is administered; their remission and payment redeemed by the blood of Christ in history - in space and time.

What I said fully in context:
The NC is not "unadministered" re: OT saints in our view since Christ has indeed come and has indeed defeated reigning sin in all the elect - in lives of those in the past, present and also future elect that have not been born yet - neither of the Spirit nor even of the flesh as their parents have yet to even meet yet.

Then when I add your affirmation of "progress" of the covenanted word, this leaves us with a progressive administration leading up to the actual new covenant. I fail to see how this differs from Westminster.

Great.
But then you say that the covenant of grace is not "instituted."
Yeah but I was changing timeframes to where the present is in the days of the OT before Christ. Notice please how I said:
I do not believe the NC is "presently instituted" in the lives of the OT saints before the coming of Christ on Earth,

This isn't hard. The CoG is a covenant based on a promise of a coming event in the lives of the OT saints and their faith in this promise is counted unto them for righteousness evidence by their obedience to the conditions of the CoW that exist in whatever era they live in: (Adamic, Abrahamic, Sinaitic, etc).

From eternity, all the elect are guaranteed salvation in the CoR. But this isn't true when you and I were 2 years old in our timeframe and perspective. When John Newton was filling shipholds with African slaves, he was reprobate. Yet in eternity, he is known / was known and never was not known. The effectual call will come / is coming / has come.
And what are those covenants that are made with them, which they relied upon for their salvation?

They are specified in the Bible. (This is the part where I put the caveat in parentheses that they are saved by justification by faith alone in Christ alone by God's grace and the obedience is evidence of their killing bosom sins and growing in holiness). So deja vu.

If you want to be clear you will need to show how this differs from Westminster and still maintains what is supposed to be distinctive to the "1689."

I have already. If you want to read it, Post # 57.
This issue comes down to one simple question -- How? How do the "elders" of the OT (Heb. 11:2) receive witness that they are righteous? Doesn't that witness come from the covenant of grace made with them? If not, how?

I give up. You tell me. Go ahead and explain how OT saints receive witness they are righteous. If you do not feel so inclined to just come out with it already and actually begin to dialogue with me instead of just exclaim with exasperation at how nothing I say makes sense, then ok. Fine. Then that will be that for me.
 
Some are honestly asking questions here; others are not.

Disgraceful!

Sigh. Yes, administered, correct. When I said that, I was speaking in our preset day meaning Christ has come and the CoG is administered; their remission and payment redeemed by the blood of Christ in history - in space and time.

In history, in space and time, would suggest the covenant has been instituted in space and time. Yet when we come to the point, you say, No.

This isn't hard. The CoG is a covenant based on a promise of a coming event in the lives of the OT saints and their faith in this promise is counted unto them for righteousness evidence by their obedience to the conditions of the CoW that exist in whatever era they live in: (Adamic, Abrahamic, Sinaitic, etc).

Yes, but administered in the lives of the elect to bring them to faith.

From eternity, all the elect are guaranteed salvation in the CoR. But this isn't true when you and I were 2 years old in our timeframe and perspective. When John Newton was filling shipholds with African slaves, he was reprobate. Yet in eternity, he is known / was known and never was not known. The effectual call will come / is coming / has come.

But the effectual call is in their lifetime.

They are specified in the Bible. (This is the part where I put the caveat in parentheses that they are saved by justification by faith alone in Christ alone by God's grace and the obedience is evidence of their killing bosom sins and growing in holiness). So deja vu.

All according to the covenant of grace made with them.


I give up. You tell me. Go ahead and explain how OT saints receive witness they are righteous.

The administration of the covenant of grace made with the elect in time.
 
There is no retroactive application since Christ is slain in the sacrifices which are received by faith.

Wait. What do you mean Christ is slain in the sacrifices which are received by faith? Christ is the bull? Christ is the ram? Christ is the turtledove? etc.

Not in type but in full reality?
 
Wait. What do you mean Christ is slain in the sacrifices which are received by faith? Christ is the bull? Christ is the ram? Christ is the turtledove? etc.

Not in type but in full reality?

Rev. 13:8, "And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world." They saw Christ in the type. The type was the means of doing this.
 
In history, in space and time, would suggest the covenant has been instituted in space and time. Yet when we come to the point, you say, No.

? CoG is instituted in space and time because it has humans as parties so it is not from eternity. And Christ is one of those humans in the CoG. The CoR that forms the coming of the CoG in space and time is between the Persons of the Trinity and has no humans as parties, so from eternity, the elect are known.

But when I said:
their remission and payment redeemed by the blood of Christ in history - in space and time.

So, I was clearly talking about the cross on that Friday. And yes, that is when the covenant is instituted in space and time by the shed blood of the Atoning Sacrifice once and for all, so when we come to that point, I said Yes, not No.
 
That is a helpful addition to the discussion and I agree with this though one would have to clarify what is being referred to by the Covenant of Grace - is it the eternal decree (Covenant of Redemption) or the fulfillment in time at the cross?

Personally, I don’t see how a Covenant of Grace instituted in Gen. 3:15 solves the issue of Christ’s future death being retroactively applied before it occurs in history. Faith is always the key element in God bestowing grace to man. Faith is a response of trust to God’s spoken promises and a confidence in the veracity of God’s character in being truthful to His promises and having the sovereign power to carry them out in time. Isn’t “faith” the primary “means” God conveys the grace of salvation?

Perhaps paranymph cut to the heart of the issue with his comment on “efficacy” but maybe that is best for another thread.
But that’s precisely the issue at hand. How was God’s promise published to OC saints? Was it covenantally or not? It is prospective in the OC and retrospective in the NC, but how was it prospectively published and administered in the OC?
 
? CoG is instituted in space and time because it has humans as parties so it is not from eternity. And Christ is one of those humans in the CoG. The CoR that forms the coming of the CoG in space and time is between the Persons of the Trinity and has no humans as parties, so from eternity, the elect are known.

It is both from eternity with Christ as our head, and made in time with the elect as His body. As David said, He hath made with me an everlasting covenant. If it were only made with Christ the elect would have no way of drawing any assurance from it. It must be made in time with them so that they might know themselves to be covenanted.
 
There is no retroactive application since Christ is slain in the sacrifices which are received by faith.
Now that is not a phrase I have heard before or am comfortable with but I will give you the benefit of the doubt if you are willing to explain further.
 
Now that is not a phrase I have heard before or am comfortable with but I will give you the benefit of the doubt if you are willing to explain further.

God makes a covenant with His people; He gives them a promise of salvation through the Deliverer to come; He institutes sacrifices to resemble His work of substitutionary atonement. They believe the promise and thereby personally enter into covenant with Him; they offer the sacrifices in faith, love, and gratitude for salvation, looking forward to Christ to come. They see His day and are glad. There is no retroactive application. It is applied there and then. Christ is slain from the beginning of the world, as the Confession teaches.
 
God makes a covenant with His people; He gives them a promise of salvation through the Deliverer to come; He institutes sacrifices to resemble His work of substitutionary atonement. They believe the promise and thereby personally enter into covenant with Him; they offer the sacrifices in faith, love, and gratitude for salvation, looking forward to Christ to come. They see His day and are glad. There is no retroactive application. It is applied there and then. Christ is slain from the beginning of the world, as the Confession teaches.

1) Animal sacrifices were instituted at Sinai, correct? In your system, how was the atonement administered from the Fall to Sinai?

2) Christ was decreed to be slain before the foundation of the world but actually died at a certain point in history, correct? And it is this one time sacrifice, and not animal sacrifices, that is efficacious for salvation, correct? And if that is true, than his actual death at the cross IS being retroactively applied in history for those who look forward to the event? I didn't really think this was a point of dispute among Christians...
 
1) Animal sacrifices were instituted at Sinai, correct? In your system, how was the atonement administered from the Fall to Sinai?

Heb 11:4. Abel offered to God by faith a more pleasing sacrifice than Cain. Although there is some question as to how they were instituted there is good reason to believe this was instituted in the garden when God clothed our parents in animal skins. Noah also offered to God a most pleasing sacrifice, and it is described in the very terms used to show the acceptability of Christ's sacrifice in Eph. 5:2.

2) Christ was decreed to be slain before the foundation of the world but actually died at a certain point in history, correct? And it is this one time sacrifice, and not animal sacrifices, that is efficacious for salvation, correct? And if that is true, than his actual death at the cross IS being retroactively applied in history for those who look forward to the event? I didn't really think this was a point of dispute among Christians...

Regrettably there are many points of dispute amongst Christians and typology is one of them. Those who maintain a single covenant of grace affirm the covenantal presence of Christ in the institutions of worship under the OT. Christ manifests Himself in types and ceremonies. This is true for "Baptists" as well. Again, I refer to Benjamin Keach:

"CANON 1. In prophetical types we must exactly take notice where Christ manifests himself with respect to his office and merit; and where he sets forth other divine things, as judgments and blessings. The reason of the canon is; because the Son of God, before the fulness of time was come, Ga 4:4 , did at sundry times, and in divers manners (polumerwv kai polutropwv) adumbrate and make himself manifest, with his merit and passion to the fathers and prophets of the Old Testament, partly by plain promises, and partly by typical visions, and thus he "rejoiced in the habitable parts of the earth," Pr 8:31. In which respect he is said to be "A Lamb slain from the foundation of the world," Re 13:8. For the general understanding of these types, the learned give this rule: "Whatsoever text of the Old Testament treats of the grace of God, of propitiation, redemption, benediction, and destruction of enemies, so that the light and explication of it may be found in the New Testament, or that the circumstances and emphasis of the words themselves discover it; that text is to be expounded of Christ, together with his merit and passion."
 
. If 1689 federalism is any bit less than intelligible or rational within the bounds established by Scripture, then what would I want to do with any of it? Nothing at all.
I know that, brother. I appreciate your replies.
The paragraph does lead toward what's now called "1689 Federalism" but you only know that if you know what Nehemiah Coxe has written on the subject. In other words, if you know Coxe, you know what the Confession means when it uses the word "revealed. . . by farther steps."
Looks like I need to read Nehemiah Coxe then. Thank you for the reply.
 
2) Christ was decreed to be slain before the foundation of the world but actually died at a certain point in history, correct? And it is this one time sacrifice, and not animal sacrifices, that is efficacious for salvation, correct? And if that is true, than his actual death at the cross IS being retroactively applied in history for those who look forward to the event? I didn't really think this was a point of dispute among Christians...
In addition to what Rev. Matthew points out, 2LBCF 8:6 employs terminology that is similar to WCF in stating that the virtue, efficacy, and benefits of Christ's work was communicated into the elect, in all ages successively from the beginning of the world, in and by those promises, types, and sacrifices.

James Renihan, in his exposition, said, "Second, in God’s purpose the virtue, efficacy, and benefit of this work were communicated to the elect from the beginning of the world by means of revelation (promises and types) as well as the sacrificial system. These were elements of the historia salutis, some of the farther steps of 7.3. Through them, the Lord revealed Christ as the promised Messiah who would bruise the serpent’s head and who was the lamb slain from the foundation of the world. The eye of faith recognized in these words and actions the purpose of God—one day all would be fulfilled in Christ. Salvation for those who lived before the cross was by prospective faith, looking forward to the time of fulfillment. The final clause, being the same yesterday, and today, and forever, cited from Hebrews 13.8, hearkens back to the doctrine of divine immutability (2.1). Because God does not change, His promise is as good as its accomplishment. It is assured, and for that reason, believers confidently rest certain that all will come to pass exactly as revealed."
 
It is both from eternity with Christ as our head, and made in time with the elect as His body. As David said, He hath made with me an everlasting covenant. If it were only made with Christ the elect would have no way of drawing any assurance from it. It must be made in time with them so that they might know themselves to be covenanted.

Of course the elect have a way to draw assurance from it: through union with Christ whose blood alone pays the price. But for the OT saint, they have the promise of the only Blood to come that will wipe it all away forever, and they do have the type that is immediately before them: the bull, the ram, et al which does not wipe it away forever and in one swipe of the blade.

Now, we have Rev. 13:8 and the Lamb who was slain from the foundation of the world. You interpret this to be the blood of Christ is the type and the type is the blood of Christ. (Peace, brother, if I am reading you wrongly. Your self-imposed character limit in responses leads to this kind of method of interpreting you. I do not contend that you believe this, rather that is as I am drawing out from your posts.)

Yet, how can the type be the blood of Christ when the forgiveness of sins under the OC is only temporary and more sacrifices are needed for the existence of indwelling sin? (Heb. 8:7)

More precisely to the theology of this:

"There are clear passages indicating that ‘the forgiveness of sins’ is unique to the New Covenant (“remember their sins no more”; Jer 31:34)… Kuyper seems to confirm this conclusion. He argued that the energies of the Spirit at Pentecost worked retroactively in the lives of OT saints.

Horton, Rediscovering the Holy Spirit, p152ff (See extended quote here: Horton’s Retroactive New Covenant)"

And the Spirit at Pentecost is tied to the shed blood of Christ in space and time at Calvary. Well, even more precisely to the Resurrection and Ascencion events whereby the Comforter now comes to dwell inside our hearts that are now circumcised in a way more directly and unlike the OT saints had access.

On OT saints and their union with Christ:

"Old Testament believers enjoyed the benefits of union with Christ and His imputed righteousness prior to His earthy ministry. The covenantal-legal agreement of the pactum [i.e., the Covenant of Redemption] was sufficient in and of itself due to the Trinity’s utter trustworthiness to carry out its covenant-oaths. In other words, the stipulations of the pactum, an inherently legal arrangement, are the foundation for the application of redemption in covenant of grace.

J.V. Fesko, The Trinity and the Covenant of Redemption, 347"

NOTE: It is the CoR that is the basis for union with Christ for the OT believer, not the blood of bulls et al, although that would work with assurance given from the union they have with the yet-to-come Redeemer. ... Now, I do think you all agree to this, but now my point is that is the interpretation of Rev. 13:8. That the Lamb is slain from eternity is not disputed in terms of the CoR, and that the Lamb slain from eternity is the basis for the promise of the NC (CoG) thereby giving the OT saint the promise and the relation needed for faith to have an object (the Word of God which was always in existence for man in every second anyone drew breath on Earth) and the blood shed to seal assurance in the obedience of faith. (well, blood only in the days before Abraham where circumcision was added to shed blood as a new promise of land and nationhood was also added. And then more acts of obedience opened at Sinai with even more promises added - and all of these working as links and working as types of elements of the coming NC where all these elements of promises and works come together seamlessly in one New Covenant).

On the establishment of the NC and Work of Christ in space and time:

"[T]he work of Christ is the source of all human salvation from sin: the salvation of Adam and Eve, of Noah, of Abraham, of Moses, of David, and of all of Godâ’s people in every age, past, present, or future. Everyone who has ever been saved has been saved through the new covenant in Christ. Everyone who is saved receives a new heart, a heart of obedience, through the new covenant work of Christ. So though it is a new covenant, it is also the oldest, the temporal expression of the pactum salutis… The New Covenant does have a temporal inauguration… the shedding of Jesus’ blood, a datable historical event, is the substance of the New Covenant, the Covenant that purifies, not only the flesh, but the conscience, the heart. Nevertheless, as we saw earlier, the efficacy of the New Covenant, unlike that of previous covenants, extends to God’s elect prior to Jesus’ atonement. When believers in the Old Testament experienced “circumcision of the heart,” or when they were Jews “inwardly,” they were partaking of the power of the New Covenant.

John Frame, Systematic Theology, p. 79-81 (See extended quote here John Frame’s Retroactive New Covenant)

(I know. Frame is not 1689 federalist, and he does not agree to the timing of the inauguration as we see it. ... But now I am addressing this new idea - to me it is new - that the NC or CoG is fully instituted from eternity, yet if WCF advocates for the CoG to be instituted from all eternity (am I getting that right?) then if one also agrees that the NC - presuming they see these as separate - is established at a point in history and not from eternity, how is there only one covenant?).


"[W]hatever spiritual gifts the fathers obtained, they were accidental as it were to their age; for it was necessary for them to direct their eyes to Christ in order to become possessed of them… There is yet no reason why God should not have extended the grace of the new covenant to the fathers. This is the true solution of the question."

Calvin (Commentary Hebrews 8:10)

(Again, I know Calvin was not 1689 federalist, but the quote suggests he also did not see the actual blood of Christ and the NC grace within the blood of bulls et al but is in some way necessarily extended to the fathers.

On the promise of the NC:

"[T]he happy persons, who even in that early age [the Old Testament] were by the grace of God taught to understand the distinction now set forth, were thereby made the children of promise, and were accounted in the secret purpose of God as heirs of the New Testament; although they continued with perfect fitness to administer the Old Testament to the ancient people of God."

Augustine, A Work on the Proceedings of Pelagius, 189 (See more quotes here)

From Keach:

"All believers, who lived under the Old Testament, were saved by the covenant of grace, which Christ was to establish.

Keach, “The Display of Glorious Grace” in The Covenant Theology of Benjamin Keach (Conway: Free Grace Press, 2017), 110."

And last (certainly not least) from John Owen:

"These things being observed, we may consider that the Scripture doth plainly and expressly make mention of two testaments, or covenants, and distinguish between them in such a way, as what is spoken can hardly be accommodated unto a twofold administration of the same covenant… "

("these things being observed" would be the core of the argument from Scripture of the differences between the Old and the New such that they are not one and the same; it is important to remember that these differences have not really been discussed here and that may be unwise as we can see from the ongoing disagreement which can feel like spinning tires in the mud - Brad]

"Wherefore we must grant two distinct covenants, rather than a twofold administration of the same covenant merely, to be intended… If reconciliation and salvation by Christ were to be obtained not only under the old covenant, but by virtue thereof, then it must be the same for substance with the new. But this is not so; for no reconciliation with God nor salvation could be obtained by virtue of the old covenant, or the administration of it, as our apostle disputes at large, though all believers were reconciled, justified, and saved, by virtue of the promise, whilst they were under the covenant… This covenant thus made, with these ends and promises, did never save nor condemn any man eternally. All that lived under the administration of it did attain eternal life, or perished forever, but not by virtue of this covenant as formally such… [T]herefore I have showed in what sense the covenant of grace is called “the new covenant,” in this distinction and opposition… The greatest and utmost mercies that God ever intended to communicate unto the church, and to bless it withal, were enclosed in the new covenant. Nor doth the efficacy of the mediation of Christ extend itself beyond the verge and compass thereof; for he is only the mediator and surety of this covenant."

Owen (Exposition, Hebrews 8:6, 9)

EDIT: All quotes pulled from: https://contrast2.wordpress.com/2021/10/25/ot-saints-were-saved-by-the-new-covenant-quotes/
 
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Of course the elect have a way to draw assurance from it: through union with Christ whose blood alone pays the price. But for the OT saint, they have the promise of the only Blood to come that will wipe it all away forever, and they do have the type that is immediately before them: the bull, the ram, et al which does not wipe it away forever and in one swipe of the blade.

No; they had the blood of Christ there and then in the type. We do not trust to the blood as a material thing, but as meritorious in the sight of God. So did they.

Now, we have Rev. 13:8 and the Lamb who was slain from the foundation of the world. You interpret this to be the blood of Christ is the type and the type is the blood of Christ. (Peace, brother, if I am reading you wrongly. Your self-imposed character limit in responses leads to this kind of method of interpreting you. I do not contend that you believe this, rather that is as I am drawing out from your posts.)

Yes; the blood they trusted to was the blood of Christ in the type.

Yet, how can the type be the blood of Christ when the forgiveness of sins under the OC is only temporary and more sacrifices are needed for the existence of indwelling sin? (Heb. 8:7)

Temporary forgiveness of sins is the doctrine of the federal vision.

More precisely to the theology of this:

"There are clear passages indicating that ‘the forgiveness of sins’ is unique to the New Covenant (“remember their sins no more”; Jer 31:34)… Kuyper seems to confirm this conclusion. He argued that the energies of the Spirit at Pentecost worked retroactively in the lives of OT saints.

In the Old Testament that I read I come across statements like 2 Sam. 12:13, "And Nathan said unto David, The LORD also hath put away thy sin; thou shalt not die."

NOTE: It is the CoR that is the basis for union with Christ for the OT believer, not the blood of bulls et al, although that would work with assurance given from the union they have with the yet-to-come Redeemer.

Nobody doubts the covenant as made with Christ is the basis for everything we enjoy in Him. But to actually possess and enjoy it God enters into covenant with the elect in Christ. That is what ministers assurance to us. We believe the covenanted Word as it is given to us, and this assures us of personal interest. That He is ours and we are His.

On the establishment of the NC and Work of Christ in space and time:

Covenant theologians hold the "new covenant" is the new administration of the covenant of grace under the Gospel. Whatever they say under this head is not to evade what they affirm about the administration of the covenant of grace under the Law. This means every time you quote them they are only speaking of the establishment of the new covenant as an administration, not as a covenant in and of itself. For you to draw something else from their words you would have to read your own view into what they are saying.

"[T]he happy persons, who even in that early age [the Old Testament] were by the grace of God taught to understand the distinction now set forth, were thereby made the children of promise, and were accounted in the secret purpose of God as heirs of the New Testament; although they continued with perfect fitness to administer the Old Testament to the ancient people of God."

Again, if you understood what is being said here you would realise that it actually contradicts your position.


From Keach:

"All believers, who lived under the Old Testament, were saved by the covenant of grace, which Christ was to establish.

You should read this in context rather than draw it out secondhand. He is dealing with the old covenant as the covenant of works. The new covenant is the covenant of grace.

"These things being observed, we may consider that the Scripture doth plainly and expressly make mention of two testaments, or covenants, and distinguish between them in such a way, as what is spoken can hardly be accommodated unto a twofold administration of the same covenant… "

Again, context is necessary. We have had numerous discussions of this on PB. Owen's position is nuanced. Pulling quotations from second hand sources is not going to get to the bottom of what he was saying.
 
Matthew,

I appreciate you taking the time and patience to answer these questions.

For me, quoting Keach is an interesting data point, and not totally irrelevant, but I am not a tribalist. My devotion is first and foremost to the Word of God.

My biggest hangup with what you are saying is it seems to go completely against the message of the book of Hebrews and its arguments against the sufficiency of the prior covenants to do what you say they are doing. As also previously pointed out, your explanations do not seem to match the type/antitype, shadow/reality mechanisms in Scripture.

I don't even remember being taught these things at RTS so I have no idea if what you are saying is the standard Reformed view or is a variant or something else.

I do not mean to say any of that in an ungracious or disrespectful way toward you, I'm just not on board at all and those are the reasons why.
 
For me, quoting Keach is an interesting data point, and not totally irrelevant, but I am not a tribalist. My devotion is first and foremost to the Word of God.

I chose Keach because it approximates to a "1689" tradition, but on the understanding the tradition is subject to Scripture.

My biggest hangup with what you are saying is it seems to go completely against the message of the book of Hebrews and its arguments against the sufficiency of the prior covenants to do what you say they are doing. As also previously pointed out, your explanations do not seem to match the type/antitype, shadow/reality mechanisms in Scripture.

One must exegetically establish what is "insufficient." The hinge on which the interpretation turns is 8:6, "But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises." Calvin explains this: "But what he adds is not without some difficulty, — that the covenant of the Gospel was proclaimed on better promises; for it is certain that the fathers who lived under the Law had the same hope of eternal life set before them as we have, as they had the grace of adoption in common with us, then faith must have rested on the same promises. But the comparison made by the Apostle refers to the form rather than to the substance; for though God promised to them the same salvation which he at this day promises to us, yet neither the manner nor the character of the revelation is the same or equal to what we enjoy. If anyone wishes to know more on this subject, let him read the 4th and 5th chapter of the Epistle to the Galatians and my Institutes."

That this is the correct interpretation is made apparent from the fact that the apostle draws the line of discontinuity on the "form" of the Old Testament worship, (chapters 9-10) while he draws a line of continuity with the "faith" of the Old Testament elders (chapters 11).
 
No; they had the blood of Christ there and then in the type.

So you say. 1689 federalists argue that in their day, they had the promise of the blood of Christ and their faith in that promise was counted unto them for righteousness. They were elect and did in fact enjoy spiritual union with Christ, but not in the same way as NT believers since we have the Spirit indwelling and need no Temple ever again. And this was not true for the OT believer.

Temporary forgiveness of sins is the doctrine of the federal vision.

Oh come on, discuss fairly with me here. It is not "federal vision" to say that a sacrifice made for a believer's sin in the OC economy was not once and for all for the rest of their lives like the NC is.

In the Old Testament that I read I come across statements like 2 Sam. 12:13, "And Nathan said unto David, The LORD also hath put away thy sin; thou shalt not die."

Sad. No one denies 2 Sam. 12:13. You keep missing the point.

It is not that I read a different OT than you (another unfair besmirching of my position by you. You keep stacking them up against me very uncharitably); rather the point of contention is in phrases from the perspective of eternity (Lamb slain from the foundation of the world) vs. phrases referencing the present day (And about the ninth hour ... Jesus yielded up the ghost".) We agree there is no contradiction between Rev. 13:8 and Matt. 27. One references eternity in CoR (Rev.) and the other references Earth history on that Good Friday (Matt. 27).

For humans, the Earth perspective is the only one we can truly understand; the only perspective we are not looking "as in a glass darkly". As party to the NC, the terms of the covenant respect the timing and perspective of the human while revealing that the terms and completion is factually actualized / was actualized / has always been actualized.

You are not dealing with this. You are dodging this and creating an unnecessary tangent to this point revealing your lack of awareness or lack of willingness to answer this. 2 Sam. 12:13 is true, even in the very day the living human prophet Nathan said those words to the very human living King David. It has been put away / will be put away / has always been put away and if David were to point to the Temple and ask, "But how?By what sacrifice?"; the answer is by the ultimate Atonement that is yet to come / has always come.

Nobody doubts the covenant as made with Christ is the basis for everything we enjoy in Him. But to actually possess and enjoy it God enters into covenant with the elect in Christ. That is what ministers assurance to us. We believe the covenanted Word as it is given to us, and this assures us of personal interest. That He is ours and we are His.

Potato, potato. I mean of course: Amen to all of this, but when I said union with Christ I implicitly affirmed this.
Whatever they say under this head is not to evade what they affirm about the administration of the covenant of grace under the Law. This means every time you quote them they are only speaking of the establishment of the new covenant as an administration, not as a covenant in and of itself.

Agreed. I even said as much. But what you are missing is that I quoted them to say they believe the CoG is inaugurated in space and time and not from eternity which is your basis that the blood of Christ is equal to the type.

(I fail to even see how it is a "type" if true? Again, if the type is the blood of Christ, are you arguing transubstantiation in the blood of bulls, rams, lambs etc. in the OT sacrifices? If so, why would there not be a Scripture saying that once sacrifice is faithfully made, then no more sacrifices are required? Genuine question there, not a dismissive condescending handwaving such as you employ).

The new covenant is the covenant of grace.

Amen.
Again, context is necessary. We have had numerous discussions of this on PB. Owen's position is nuanced. Pulling quotations from secondhand sources is not going to get to the bottom of what he was saying.

There is no "bottom" to what he is saying needed here. The emphasized points do well enough to show that he agrees with me that the OT sacrifices were not satisfactory and the implicit question is: if not satisfactory then how can the blood of animals on the altar be equivalent to the blood of Christ? I am no expert on Owen but I have read him quite a bit and am pretty sure that while he is indeed nuanced, he is not on your side here.

Unless ... are you contending he shares your "blood of Christ is in the type and the type is the blood of Christ" view? Please share a couple of quotes that affirm Owen is with you. That will be genuinely a learning experience for me.
 
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@NoOtherName

"Oh come on, discuss fairly with me here. It is not "federal vision" to say that a sacrifice made for a believer's sin in the OC economy was not once and for all for the rest of their lives like the NC is"

Aside from the covenant discussion, you need to think long and hard about what you've said here.

ETA: I do think that beyond covenant, Baptist and Presbyterian sacramentology needs to be discussed.
 
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@NoOtherName

"Oh come on, discuss fairly with me here. It is not "federal vision" to say that a sacrifice made for a believer's sin in the OC economy was not once and for all for the rest of their lives like the NC is"

Aside from the covenant discussion, you need to think long and hard about what you've said here.

Why is everyone so cryptic? Please elucidate.

An OT believer goes forward to offer a burnt-offering, sin offering ... and that is it? Your position is that as he struggles with indwelling sin he needs never sacrifice again? Needs never again go to the Tabernacle (or Temple depending on era)? Has the indwelling Spirit in the same way as we do?

I have never heard this before.
 
Why is everyone so cryptic? Please elucidate.

An OT believer goes forward to offer a burnt-offering, sin offering ... and that is it? Your position is that as he struggles with indwelling sin he needs never sacrifice again? Needs never again go to the Tabernacle or Temple depending on era? Has the indwelling Spirit in the same way as we do?

I have never heard this before.
Sorry, I ETA'd to clarify, but you responded first. It's not just covenant that needs to be discussed, but what is actually happening in the system of sacrifice, as well. What is occurring when sacrifice is offered? What does the repeated offering say/mean? Is it an issue of efficacy or assurance? Because your response is indicative of a talking past one another.
 
Sorry, I ETA'd to clarify, but you responded first. It's not just covenant that needs to be discussed, but what is actually happening in the system of sacrifice, as well. What is occurring when sacrifice is offered? What does the repeated offering say/mean? Is it an issue of efficacy or assurance? Because your response is indicative of a talking past one another.

Repeated offering = dealing with indwelling sin in the OC economy as a type or shadow of NC sanctification. This being made possible by the indwelling Spirit granted in us in the NT and at regeneration and by Him we put to death the deeds of the flesh daily. But I interpret this to be the fact that in history - in space (Jerusalem) and time (~ AD 33), the veil between the Holy Place and the Holy of Holies has been torn in two. In the NC, we no longer need to go to Jerusalem to offer sacrifices. Are you saying that Westminster teaches the OT believers had such grace that the veil was spiritually torn for them? That they too were baptized in the Spirit? That the promise of the baptism by the Spirit to come by John the Baptist was redundant then? (Which I presume you do not believe, yes?)

And I would be very grateful if someone could be as outright and straightforward and as clear and forthcoming as I have endeavored to be here. (I admit I am not always clear in my wording but I really do try).
 
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Why is everyone so cryptic? Please elucidate.

An OT believer goes forward to offer a burnt-offering, sin offering ... and that is it? Your position is that as he struggles with indwelling sin he needs never sacrifice again? Needs never again go to the Tabernacle (or Temple depending on era)? Has the indwelling Spirit in the same way as we do?

I have never heard this before.
I do apologize. I'm not trying to be cryptic or unclear. Just trying not to engage too far as I am not inclined to become entangled in a conversation that I've had too many times. Just pointing out discussions that probably need to be had to bring clarity when parties are speaking past each other.

I mentioned a discussion of administration is needed. I'm now suggesting a discussion of what is actually happening in the sacrificial system is also needed. Yes, covenant theology is a central issue, but the implications of different CTs with respect to what is actually happening in the OT sacrificial system can actually shed light on the whole conversation.

But, please feel free to ignore me if I'm not being helpful.
 
I do apologize. I'm not trying to be cryptic or unclear. Just trying not to engage too far as I am not inclined to become entangled in a conversation that I've had too many times. Just pointing out discussions that probably need to be had to bring clarity when parties are speaking past each other.

I mentioned a discussion of administration is needed. I'm now suggesting a discussion of what is actually happening in the sacrificial system is also needed. Yes, covenant theology is a central issue, but the implications of different CTs with respect to what is actually happening in the OT sacrificial system can actually shed light on the whole conversation.

But, please feel free to ignore me if I'm not being helpful.

Well, I certainly do not disagree with this. That has been the drive of my last two posts.

I will try another way: when I read into 1689 CT, I framed it as if a regular guy a regular Joe (Jospeh if you will) was living and working as a shepherd in the days of the Tabernacle and he is one of the elect. Now it is very probable that I missed something as I was reading Biblically that is a disjunct in my theology that is unknown.

But I cannot wrap my head around the actual blood of Christ being so much equivalent to the type such that indwelling sin is now dealt with in the same exact manner has a NT believer who has the indwelling Holy Spirit - at least simultaneously denying retroactivity.
 
Well, I certainly do not disagree with this. That has been the drive of my last two posts.

I will try another way: when I read into 1689 CT, I framed it as if a regular guy a regular Joe (Jospeh if you will) was living and working as a shepherd in the days of the Tabernacle and he is one of the elect. Now it is very probable that I missed something as I was reading Biblically that is a disjunct in my theology that is unknown.

But I cannot wrap my head around the actual blood of Christ being so much equivalent to the type such that indwelling sin is now dealt with in the same exact manner has a NT believer who has the indwelling Holy Spirit - at least simultaneously denying retroactivity.
I just got the news today that another good friend is making the move to EO. I just don't have the energy anymore. Hope y'all are able to bring clarity to confusion. I'm out. God bless all here.
 
Unless I missed something (very possible), I thought he said they had the blood of Christ in the type, which seems different than saying they’re equal.

You may be right in that I am not being as precise to the view as I should. The question seems to be outward obedience to the law vs. perfect obedience to the law in the context of the sacrifices. And only one sacrifice in history involved a human who offered sacrifice with perfect obedience.

But I don't know. I am sure everyone here affirms the above paragraph I wrote but seems to have a different view of what a "type" is or means.

So I think the meaning of "type" is where we are at.

Three notes here: 1) there seems to be little discussion made here from the framework of charity and curiosity. Often, if I make points with quotes, they are succinctly denied or quotes waved off as "out of context" with no explanations given. If one feels no obligation to explain why, that is fair enough. Indeed there is no law under which anyone here has to ever explain anything. But that does relegate those posts as significantly unhelpful by definition.

2) Even those who are discussing in the framework of curiosity and charity, there seems to be an energy of underlying antagonism and hostility bringing weariness with it to all those who participate. I am not immune to this effect. A lot of our personal identity seems tied to the theology we ascribe to, and for good reason. However, as a recent thread on mistakes and sin pointed out, there is only one correct theology.

Only one view that is correct from the Earth perspective and from heaven's perspective. While the language used might prove challenging crossing these two perspectives by necessity of their expansive divide, the correct Covenant Theology exists and is one and is wholly Biblical. I believe that with my whole heart.

Is it too much to ask that the topic can be discussed with this in mind - that if the one has so much evidence over the other that anyone who humbly wants to believe the Biblical truth, then the conversation has to become less antagonistic and hostile towards phrases written by anyone (me especially please) that are seeking to clarify and reach truth? It seems like every word I type is being scrutinized for evidence of how I am wrong to declare I am wrong and, in a way, to end my posting - to end the details of this thread.

Now I also claim my interlocutors are wrong, but I am looking to elicit more details from them, not less so that the clarity of Covenant Theology shines through, not just for me but for all those observing quietly, analyzing the differences and seeking what is true and what is most explanatory of revealed Biblical knowledge here.

The key difference between me and my engaged opponents is when I say something, I get short statements or accused of being FV or quotes dismissed as out of context - in short, no explanations and no curious questioning further of me and my stance.

But when others say something here that jars against my view I ask questions. (How does the blood of Christ exist in the type before the blood of Christ is spilled in history - in space and time? Transubstantiation or something akin to it? And if this is true, how is the Old Covenant any way inferior to the New?) These were never meant rhetorically as if "Boom" - mic drop. If I ever acted as if they were, I apologize. I never intended that.

3) I am pausing my interaction in this thread the rest of the Lord's Day, and will not be on until Monday at least.

God bless you all
 
So you say. 1689 federalists argue that in their day, they had the promise of the blood of Christ and their faith in that promise was counted unto them for righteousness. They were elect and did in fact enjoy spiritual union with Christ, but not in the same way as NT believers since we have the Spirit indwelling and need no Temple ever again. And this was not true for the OT believer.

Who would know what "1689 federalists" believe? Here is what the Westminster Larger Catechism A34 says: "The covenant of grace was administered under the Old Testament, by promises, prophecies, sacrifices, circumcision, the passover, and other types and ordinances, which did all foresignify Christ then to come, and were for that time sufficient to build up the elect in faith in the promised Messiah, by whom they then had full remission of sin, and eternal salvation." This is what the Bible teaches. Once we go away from the Bible man seeks out many inventions.

Oh come on, discuss fairly with me here. It is not "federal vision" to say that a sacrifice made for a believer's sin in the OC economy was not once and for all for the rest of their lives like the NC is.

The federal vision holds to a category of temporary forgiveness. It seems you do the same. Traditional reformed covenant theology holds no such category. In common with WLC quoted above they "then had full remission of sin." In Romans 4 the apostle Paul takes us back to the experience of Old Testament believers like David and Abraham to establish the gratuitous nature of forgiveness and justification.

(another unfair besmirching of my position by you. You keep stacking them up against me very uncharitably);

It was rhetorical. It was a way of saying my position is biblical as opposed to yours. If that is "besmirching" then every disagreement over what the Bible teaches "besmirches" another, which would be ridiculous. There is no point taking offence when none is given.

rather the point of contention is in phrases from the perspective of eternity (Lamb slain from the foundation of the world) vs. phrases referencing the present day (And about the ninth hour ... Jesus yielded up the ghost".) We agree there is no contradiction between Rev. 13:8 and Matt. 27. One references eternity in CoR (Rev.) and the other references Earth history on that Good Friday (Matt. 27).

My covenant theology understands the covenant of grace as the administration of the covenant of redemption. This means what was agreed upon from eternity is administered and applied to believers in their time. OT believers laid hold of Christ and His merits proleptically. They were looking forward to what He would do. We do the same, only we look back. But there is still a proleptic aspect in our faith because we look forward also to judgment day, which means we trust the sins we are going to commit in the future are also covered by the blood of Christ. His blood cleanseth from all sin.

For humans, the Earth perspective is the only one we can truly understand; the only perspective we are not looking "as in a glass darkly". As party to the NC, the terms of the covenant respect the timing and perspective of the human while revealing that the terms and completion is factually actualized / was actualized / has always been actualized.

Humans live in time and space. God's covenant is His condescension to them in their time and space. He purges their conscience, and that conscience deals with the realities of the here and now.

You are not dealing with this. You are dodging this and creating an unnecessary tangent to this point revealing your lack of awareness or lack of willingness to answer this. 2 Sam. 12:13 is true, even in the very day the living human prophet Nathan said those words to the very human living King David. It has been put away / will be put away / has always been put away and if David were to point to the Temple and ask, "But how?By what sacrifice?"; the answer is by the ultimate Atonement that is yet to come / has always come.

It is not an unnecessary tangent. His sin was put away there and then. That is what the Bible says. That is what I believe.

(I fail to even see how it is a "type" if true? Again, if the type is the blood of Christ, are you arguing transubstantiation in the blood of bulls, rams, lambs etc. in the OT sacrifices? If so, why would there not be a Scripture saying that once sacrifice is faithfully made, then no more sacrifices are required? Genuine question there, not a dismissive condescending handwaving such as you employ).

This makes me look like a Lutheran -- "is" as opposed to "represents." I am Reformed. The Reformed hold to spiritual presence.

There is no "bottom" to what he is saying needed here. The emphasized points do well enough to show that he agrees with me that the OT sacrifices were not satisfactory and the implicit question is: if not satisfactory then how can the blood of animals on the altar be equivalent to the blood of Christ? I am no expert on Owen but I have read him quite a bit and am pretty sure that while he is indeed nuanced, he is not on your side here.

Unless ... are you contending he shares your "blood of Christ is in the type and the type is the blood of Christ" view? Please share a couple of quotes that affirm Owen is with you. That will be genuinely a learning experience for me.

From his Exposition on Psalm 130: Now, he is said to be a "Lamb slain from the foundation of the world," Rev. xiii. 8, which could not be unless some sacrifice, prefiguring his being slain, had been then offered; for it denotes not only the efficacy of his mediation, but the way. Besides, the apostle tells us that "without shedding of blood there was no remission," Heb. ix. 22, that is, God, to demonstrate that all pardon and forgiveness related to the blood of Christ from the foundation of the world, gave out no word of pardon but by and with blood. Now, I have showed before that he revealed pardon in the first promise; and therefore there ensued thereon the shedding of blood and sacrifices; and thereby that testament or covenant "was dedicated with blood" also, verse 18. Some think that the beasts, of whose skins God made garments for Adam, were offered in sacrifices. Nor is the conjecture vain; yea, it seems not to want a shadow of a gospel mystery, that their nakedness, which became their shame upon their sin (whence the pollution and shame of sin is frequently so termed), should be covered with the skins of their sacrifices: for in the true sacrifice there is somewhat answerable thereunto; and the righteousness of Him whose sacrifice takes away the guilt of our sin is called our clothing, that hides our pollution and shame.

There is also a lengthy section in his answer to the Socinians where he argues against drawing the virtue of sacrifice from the decree of God alone.
 
This is what the Bible teaches. Once we go away from the Bible man seeks out many inventions.

Agreed.
It was a way of saying my position is biblical as opposed to yours.

This - for all who might not recall - was his smirking way of saying "the Old Testament I read says ..." as if I read another Old Testament than he does ..., and yes, I am aware of the intent that you think your position is biblical as opposed to mine, but in the discussion of typology we are either talking past one another (because there is a lot you say that I agree but a lot you say that I question and I think there is a difference in the work of Christ in the OC and the work of Christ in the NC which I still am unclear if you agree or not, and if you do, how so.)

In short, charity would dictate that you give me the benefit of the doubt in that I am endeavoring to articulate the position in full Scriptural adherence just as yourself.

This makes me look like a Lutheran -- "is" as opposed to "represents." I am Reformed. The Reformed hold to spiritual presence.

Ah, but I did not accuse you of this. I asked you a question. (unlike you accusing me of FV when I did not say anywhere that any saint in the OT had temporary forgiveness of sins. I said each sacrifice was efficacious but that the sacrificial system was set up for indwelling sin before the Holy Spirit).

In fairness to my question, it was you who said this:

they had the blood of Christ there and then in the type.
which had me interpret you as saying the blood of Christ is the type and the type is the blood of Christ (pretty sure you said this as well, but I cannot find it now? Did I imagine this or did you edit out a miswording you regretted?). It is ok if you did. Miswording or regrettable phrasing that leaves one open to misunderstanding happens all the time. I seem to be setting up camp in that zone, and am looking at myself in the mirror wondering how much of it is me (more than a significant amount) and how much of it is others.

A lot of the other things you wrote I agree with, but suspect I am looking at it differently than you. I will revisit 1689 typology and take on some extra work in church for a few days and come back. I will be happy to engage in comparative typology with anyone interested.

Or if everyone has moved on, I would be happy to do that as well. God bless you all
 
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