TsonMariytho
Puritan Board Freshman
This is a question for the Baptists on the PB. Consider the following scenario:
It is a time of apostasy in ancient Israel. A king reigns in Samaria who worships Baal (cf. Ahab). There is an Israelite man, let's call him "Bob", who turns away from the true religion to worship idols. The man has a son. Let's call the son "Bin-Bob". For whatever reason, the man adds to his covenant breaking the neglect of his son's circumcision -- i.e. Bin-Bob is not circumcised. Over time Bin-Bob grows to adulthood and moves out on his own.
Then, a reformer rises up and puts the wicked king's regime to death (cf. Jehu). The reformer takes a look at Bin-Bob and tries to decide what to do with him. Should Bin-Bob be dealt with as one under covenant obligations? Does the following passage apply?
... or is the above law irrelevant to Bin-Bob?
It is a time of apostasy in ancient Israel. A king reigns in Samaria who worships Baal (cf. Ahab). There is an Israelite man, let's call him "Bob", who turns away from the true religion to worship idols. The man has a son. Let's call the son "Bin-Bob". For whatever reason, the man adds to his covenant breaking the neglect of his son's circumcision -- i.e. Bin-Bob is not circumcised. Over time Bin-Bob grows to adulthood and moves out on his own.
Then, a reformer rises up and puts the wicked king's regime to death (cf. Jehu). The reformer takes a look at Bin-Bob and tries to decide what to do with him. Should Bin-Bob be dealt with as one under covenant obligations? Does the following passage apply?
Gen 17:14 Any uncircumcised male who is not circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin shall be cut off from his people; he has broken my covenant."
... or is the above law irrelevant to Bin-Bob?