Status
Not open for further replies.

RobertPGH1981

Puritan Board Sophomore
Hello All,

So forgive my ignorance here but Baptism isn't a topic I researched much from an OT perspective. I was trying to understand the significance of the baptisms that took place by John since they were still under the Old Covenant practices. It is understood that the covenant sign of circumcision was the entrance into the covenant community under the OId Covenant. Why did John the Baptist baptize people prior to the entrance of the New Covenant? The start of the new covenant starts either at or around Jesus' death depending on who you read. Keeping this in mind my questions were as follows:

1.) Why was it necessary to baptize prior to the new covenant?
2.) In the OT ceremonial washing comes to mind when reading the passage in Ezekiel 36:25.. This aligns to Jesus' actions in when it says he washes (baptizo) his hands (see references below). Did this action of being baptised make much sense to the Jews? What significance was it for them at the time of John the Baptist since the covenant sign was still circumcision?
  • "and when they come from the marketplace, they do not eat unless they wash." (Mk 7:3–4).
  • "The Pharisee was astonished to see that he did not first wash before dinner." (Lk 11:38).
3.) Why did Jesus need to be baptized to fulfill all righteousness?

Thanks,

Rob
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top