arapahoepark
Puritan Board Professor
I was wondering what is the consensus in the Reformed community about Satan's fall being described in Ezekiel and Isaiah? I have heard both that it does refer to Satan and others that it does not only the kings of the respective nations.
Could there be a third way, saying they are describing the kings, while alluding to Satan, unlike the first that Satan position that is indwelling the kings (he is to a degree anyway)? In other words, not talking to Satan, but to the king referring to what satan did?
Could there be a third way, saying they are describing the kings, while alluding to Satan, unlike the first that Satan position that is indwelling the kings (he is to a degree anyway)? In other words, not talking to Satan, but to the king referring to what satan did?