Marrow Man
Drunk with Powder
I am wondering when/where the idea that Isaiah 14:12 was talking about Satan. Yes, I understand that the KJV uses the word "Lucifer" for "morning star" and Lucifer is considered to be a popular name for the devil, but this is not what I am talking about. Unless I am missing something, this would be the only place in Scripture where the devil is given that name if that is who the passage is talking about, which begs the question.
Last evening I looked in both Keil and Delitzsch and Calvin to see their discussions of the passage. Both say it is not referring to Satan. K and D mention that some of the early church fathers interpreted the passage this way. If so, who did that and when did that teaching become popular? Calvin describes the interpretation as purely a-contextual fantasy, especially since the passage plainly is speaking of the king of Babylon.
Thoughts?
Last evening I looked in both Keil and Delitzsch and Calvin to see their discussions of the passage. Both say it is not referring to Satan. K and D mention that some of the early church fathers interpreted the passage this way. If so, who did that and when did that teaching become popular? Calvin describes the interpretation as purely a-contextual fantasy, especially since the passage plainly is speaking of the king of Babylon.
Thoughts?