Eoghan
Puritan Board Senior
The second sermon/lecture from a certain preacher made the observation that only after pronouncing judgment on the unbelieving towns and Pharisees does Jesus use parables. Given the tendency of most preachers to flit from one text to another (in the same sermon1) it would not surprise me that this might be true. Have others heard this before? If so what was the context? Jesus does seem to resort to parables in a very delberate fashion as He explained when asked (Mathew 13:10)