Partial Preterism vs. Amillennialism

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inspector

Puritan Board Freshman
I know this my sound strange to most of you, but I do not understand what the difference is between Partial Preterism and Amillennialism.

I have read countless articles on the internet, but I can not draw a conclusion.
 
I\'m listening.

I too would like more clarification. Like all of the issues, I know the answers can be found in volumes of books, but, one reason posts are helpful is we can get (sometimes) the short version.

My simple understanding is Preterist just means already happened, so partial means some of the events of scripture prophecy has already happened some hasn't, obviously there can be a range that fits partial, no range for full preterist, all has happened, and for Pre mill, most--if not all--proph. from new testament we are still waiting for. So I think amill is part of partial compared to say, Pre mills.

[Edited on 3-11-2004 by tdowns007]
 
Amillennialism deals specifically with the timing of the millennium (or lack thereof). Partial Preterism is more concerned with the events that were prophecied in the NT that came to fulfillment in 70 AD. Partial Preterists can be either Amil or Postmill.
 
Originally posted by inspector
I know this my sound strange to most of you, but I do not understand what the difference is between Partial Preterism and Amillennialism.

I have read countless articles on the internet, but I can not draw a conclusion.

Well there are definitely elements of preterism within certain branches of amillennialism, but most amills see many passages that preterists see as occuring in ad 70 as applying to the entire church age. Kim Riddlebarger has written an excellent work introducing amillennialism and the first part explains the hermeneutics involved.

openairboy
 
I have found that most partial preterist that have a AD 70 fulfillment of 2 Pet 3:9-12, and other such passages on the day of the Lord are postmillennial. In other words the more preteristic one becomes the more postmillennial you are. That been said I think that 2 Pet 3:9-12 could have AD70 fulfillment and I'm amillennial (optimistic).

VanVos
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
Jay Adams is a partial preterist and an A-miller.

Amillennialism deals with the NATURE and not the timming. I think both post (not the historic posts, though) and A agree on TIMMING but not on NATURE. Both post and a can be preteristic in their interpretive scheme.

Is any of Jay Adams material on the web I would like to read it?. Also you are correct that amill and postmill differer more on the nature of the millennium rather than the timming.

VanVos
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
I don't know any on the web. I know he has books, though (The Time is At Hand, Preterism: Orthodox and Unorthodox).
Thanks I see if I can find his book at a good price.

Yes, I am pretty sure I'm correct. You and I believe that the timming is from the ascension until he returns, right? That is, the millennium is the entire Church age. Jesus comes back at the end. Now, the nature of this millennium is where we disagree ( just bear with me for convenience sake: pessimistic vs. optamistic). So, no matter how you characterize it you hold that the millenniums nature will not be chacterized by a golden age.

True, I believe that this is where we disagree (for the present). I would say that the Kingdom of God is manifested through Word and Sacrament, and the believers heart, but it's influence should be seen in every area of life i.e. politics, arts etc.

p.s. good to talk to you again. I left a couple days after you last e-mail to me and so didn't have time to make arrangements to see you.

No problem, I know you said that you were really busy. Good to talk to you again as well.

VanVos

P.S. If you like I could set up another thread to discuss the millennium issue further.





[Edited on 3-11-2004 by VanVos]
 
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