Me Died Blue
Puritan Board Post-Graduate
I've always wondered about the exegesis and implications of 1 Corinthians 7:25 (ESV), which reads "Now concerning the betrothed, I have no command from the Lord, but I give my judgment as one who by the Lord's mercy is trustworthy." How is Paul's opinion to be counted as Scripture in this case? While he does indeed say that the Lord had confirmed him and thus his judgment as "trustworthy" in this case, that would not automatically mean that it is universally binding, and thus fit for the canon. Furthermore, if it Paul's "trustworthiness" established by God validates his advice to the same level as the rest of Scripture, why would he even have mentioned that he has no word from the Lord in that case?
I don't doubt the canon, I'm just trying to understand how we are to go about interpreting this statement.
Chris
I don't doubt the canon, I'm just trying to understand how we are to go about interpreting this statement.
Chris