Scott
Puritan Board Graduate
I have heard that John Murray and other reformed commentators have argued that the "word of God" referred to in Rom. 10:17 (and the related context) refers to the preaching (meaning not just reading aloud the text of scripture, but the sermon) of the scriptures. Is this right? Can anyone outline this argument?
Both Calvin and Matthew Henry to affirm that Rom. 10:17 refers to preaching, but it is unclear whether they simply mean reading aloud the text of scripture (which may not have made sense given the incomplete nature of the NT at that time).
Both Calvin and Matthew Henry to affirm that Rom. 10:17 refers to preaching, but it is unclear whether they simply mean reading aloud the text of scripture (which may not have made sense given the incomplete nature of the NT at that time).