I have been studying the Olivet Discourse (Mark 13 especially, but parallels too) and I cannot find an interpretation that makes sense to me. I feel pushed by necessity to at least a partially futurist reading, as 1 Thess 4-5 appears parallel to the OD (and maybe even 2 Thess 2).
However, I know there are some partial preterists on this board. I find the preterist reading of the Olivet Discourse very consistent and the simplest. However, I do not understand the following:
1. 1 Thessalonians 4:13-5:11 seem to be parallel with the Olivet Discourse with similar language and concepts. 1 Thess 4:15 even implies that Paul is building his teaching upon it. I'm not sure how one can read the OD as AD70, but 1 Thess 4 as the future resurrection. It seems to me that hyper-preterists are more consistent here to recognize the parallels.
2. On a related note, I am not sure how the OD's Abomination of Desolation (drawing from Daniel) and 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12 (Daniel 11:36) can refer to separate events. If the AoD is AD70 and 2 Thess 2 remains future, why would Jesus not mention the latter event in the Discourse? Especially as the AoD is what precedes His "coming". However, if 2 Thess 2 is AD70 (and I've read a compelling argument that Dan 11:36f refers to John Giscala), then how can he be killed "by the appearance of [Christ's] coming" (2 Thess 2:8)?
The Thessalonian passages compel me to an almost entirely futurist reading of the Olivet Discourse, but this does not feel at all a natural reading of Mark 13 and parallels.
I'd certainly appreciate any help working through these connections!
However, I know there are some partial preterists on this board. I find the preterist reading of the Olivet Discourse very consistent and the simplest. However, I do not understand the following:
1. 1 Thessalonians 4:13-5:11 seem to be parallel with the Olivet Discourse with similar language and concepts. 1 Thess 4:15 even implies that Paul is building his teaching upon it. I'm not sure how one can read the OD as AD70, but 1 Thess 4 as the future resurrection. It seems to me that hyper-preterists are more consistent here to recognize the parallels.
2. On a related note, I am not sure how the OD's Abomination of Desolation (drawing from Daniel) and 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12 (Daniel 11:36) can refer to separate events. If the AoD is AD70 and 2 Thess 2 remains future, why would Jesus not mention the latter event in the Discourse? Especially as the AoD is what precedes His "coming". However, if 2 Thess 2 is AD70 (and I've read a compelling argument that Dan 11:36f refers to John Giscala), then how can he be killed "by the appearance of [Christ's] coming" (2 Thess 2:8)?
The Thessalonian passages compel me to an almost entirely futurist reading of the Olivet Discourse, but this does not feel at all a natural reading of Mark 13 and parallels.
I'd certainly appreciate any help working through these connections!