Preterism

[MW]

I don't deny your view, although I believe that the shaking is not complete. There are still some shakable things remaining that will not endure the last judgment. I'm just pointing out that Haggai 2:6 claims that this shaking will be "in a little while" back in 521 BC. How is it only a little while if you understand the shaking to take place 591 years later as a fulfillment of Haggai 2:6?

You say the idea of a 1st century shaking doesn't fit with a "little while," but you want to have things shaken at the last judgment, which is even further away than the 1st century.

Hebrews quotes it as a "little while" from his perspective. Given that Hebrews is inspired we are bound to accept this as a valid perspective. Once we accept it we can understand a "little while" accordingly. In dealing with statements like this interpreters will allude to Peter's reference that to God one day is as a thousand years and a thousand years as one day; so a little time is relatively short in comparison with what God is doing over the span of time.

 

[Southpaw]

You say the idea of a 1st century shaking doesn't fit with a "little while," but you want to have things shaken at the last judgment, which is even further away than the 1st century.

Hebrews quotes it as a "little while" from his perspective. Given that Hebrews is inspired we are bound to accept this as a valid perspective. Once we accept it we can understand a "little while" accordingly. In dealing with statements like this interpreters will allude to Peter's reference that to God one day is as a thousand years and a thousand years as one day; so a little time is relatively short in comparison with what God is doing over the span of time.

I see no reason why it can't be a reference to both events. But I'm not here to provide answers, I am asking questions, just trying to understand, and questioning an preterist inconsistency. But where in Hebrews 12 does it say a little while? It is found in the text in Haggai but doesn't appear in Hebrews.

After all, in The Last Days According to Jesus, if the text implies that the early church was expectantly waiting for Christ to come, then 70AD. If the text spoke of wrath or judgment or antichrist, 70AD. My opening post was to ask how far you can really go with these things, and what becomes heresy.

Amen to 2 Peter 3, God is not slow to fulfill His promise!

 

[MW]

I see no reason why it can't be a reference to both events.

The whole passage is contrasting the promulgation of the law and the promulgation of the gospel. Christ now speaks from heaven, v. 25. The testimony from Haggai is to confirm that point and enforce the exhortation to not turn away from Him. It is not speaking of what will happen at the day of judgment but what will happen now in the change of economies.

But I'm not here to provide answers, I am asking questions, just trying to understand, and questioning an preterist inconsistency. But where in Hebrews 12 does it say a little while? It is found in the text in Haggai but doesn't appear in Hebrews.

It doesn't. We were discussing the "little while" of Haggai. To what does it refer? The fact it is taken up in Hebrews shows that the "little while" was relevant to what the author was talking about.

After all, in The Last Days According to Jesus, if the text implies that the early church was expectantly waiting for Christ to come, then 70AD. If the text spoke of wrath or judgment or antichrist, 70AD. My opening post was to ask how far you can really go with these things, and what becomes heresy.

If one can grasp the magnitude of the change of dispensations in light of what the Book of Hebrews teaches it will be clear that preterism is basic to the way we think as Christians. We live in and breathe the atmosphere of the new covenant and so testify to the fulfilment of Old Testament prophecies.