So I'm reading this book with my wife (I won't mention it's name right now). It's written by a PCA pastor I believe. Anyway, at one point, he says that prostitution was permissible (though not encouraged) for women in the Old Testament as long as they didn't have a husband. If they had a husband, then it became adultery and would be a sin. This struck both of us as very odd (and wrong). He didn't cite any Scripture to make an argument, it was almost as if this was a given. He said that later, in the NT era, that prostitution was explicitly forbidden.
Is there a legitimate basis for this belief?
Is there a legitimate basis for this belief?
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