I was reading along in Psalm 106, and verse 31 jumped out at me. The context reads, speaking of Israel's unfaithfulness in light of God's mercy: 28 They joined themselves also to Baal of Peor, And ate sacrifices made to the dead. 29 Thus they provoked Him to anger with their deeds, And the plague broke out among them. 30 Then Phinehas stood up and intervened, And the plague was stopped. 31 And that was accounted to him for righteousness To all generations forevermore. What is your take on this verse? The language is identical to that of Genesis 15:6- "And he believed in the LORD, and He accounted it to him for righteousness" What exactly was accounted to Phinehas for righteousness? John Murray wrote that if Paul had used Phinehas instead of Abraham in Romans 4, he would have contradicted his own argument, so this must not mean the same thing as Genesis 15:6. Agree or disagree?