Psalm 2 and the Septuagint

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83r17h

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I have a bit of a curiosity question, because I've never seen it before.

Psalm 2:2 in the Septuagint reads
παρέστησαν οἱ βασιλεῖς τῆς γῆς,
καὶ οἱ ἄρχοντες συνήχθησαν ἐπὶ τὸ αὐτὸ
κατὰ τοῦ κυρίου καὶ κατὰ τοῦ χριστοῦ αὐτοῦ
διάψαλμα

I bolded χριστοῦ above, because it is the word of interest. If I understand correctly, it is the Greek word for "anointed one," which is what most English translations I'm aware of say. However, we typically translate this in the NT as "Christ," and not as "anointed one" (even though they are the same meaning, and "Christ" is just the Greek word for the same Hebrew as "anointed one"). If I'm wrong about the languages, please let me know.

So my question is: are there any metrical versions of Psalm 2 that use "Christ" instead of "anointed one"? And if so, for folks here who hold to EP, would you consider such a metrical version of Psalm 2 which said "Christ" to be valid for use in worship?
 
I don't know the answer to the first question. Regarding the second question, I'm not sure exactly what you mean by valid - singing the Psalms in worship is commanded, if we're singing in English then the aim should be that our translation is as accurate as possible (yes I know that's not the only consideration when translating metrical Psalms).

I tend to think that anointed is a better translation for Psalm 2:2, even though the verse is clearly referring to Christ. Hebrew, not Greek, is the original language of the Psalm, and although the Psalm is Messianic, it was written about 1000 years before Christ. All this is not to say that if your translation says Christ instead of anointed then you're not singing the Psalm and violating the RPW.
 
The RPCI's Psalter, The Psalms for Singing: A 21st Century Edition, translates the verse, "They're against the LORD Most High, and against Messiah's sway."
 
I've sung from metrical version's that use "Messiah" or "Christ." While perhaps not the most precise possible translation, it seems to be a perfectly fine translation to me.
 
I have a bit of a curiosity question, because I've never seen it before.

Psalm 2:2 in the Septuagint reads


I bolded χριστοῦ above, because it is the word of interest. If I understand correctly, it is the Greek word for "anointed one," which is what most English translations I'm aware of say. However, we typically translate this in the NT as "Christ," and not as "anointed one" (even though they are the same meaning, and "Christ" is just the Greek word for the same Hebrew as "anointed one"). If I'm wrong about the languages, please let me know.

So my question is: are there any metrical versions of Psalm 2 that use "Christ" instead of "anointed one"? And if so, for folks here who hold to EP, would you consider such a metrical version of Psalm 2 which said "Christ" to be valid for use in worship?

I would have to agree and amplify what Scottish Presbyterian said: "anointed" in the context of Psalm 2 is probably better, even though it is referring to Christ.

Actually, somewhat related: I am currently going through the Book of Joshua in the Septuagint, and anyone who's familiar with it knows that, in the Greek, Joshua = Ἰησοῦς. Thus, a perfectly accurate English translation for Joshua would be "Jesus." But there's something somewhat jarring about calling Joshua "Jesus."
 
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I would have to agree and amplify what Scottish Presbyterian said: "anointed" in the context of Psalm 2 is probably better, even though it is referring to Christ.

Actually, somewhat related: I am currently going through the Book of Joshua in the Septuagint, and anyone who's familiar with it knows that, in the Greek, Joshua = Ἰησοῦς. Thus, a perfectly accurate English translation for Joshua would be "Jesus." But there's something somewhat jarring about calling Joshua "Jesus."
This is what the KJV does, for example in Hebrews 4:8. While it's an accurate translation, I think it's confusing.
 
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