Psalm 71 would seem quite easily understood to be words of Christ, appropriate to the experience of Christ in every way, and making statements that cannot be fully understood without reference to Christ. But there is also a strong emphasis on old age (vv.9, 18), to which Christ did not attain before His death and resurrection. Should this: 1. Lead us not to apply any portion of the Psalm to Christ, but limit it to believers? 2. Exclude these verses from applying to Christ, while understanding most (at least) of the rest of the Psalm as speaking of Him? 3. Apply these verses to Christ as well, but figuratively (and if so how)? 4. Conclude that the standard chronology of the life of Christ is wrong, and that He was closer to old age than to vigorous maturity when He was crucified?