steven-nemes
Puritan Board Sophomore
Romans 3:2
Does this imply that non-Jews are not prophets?
Question about prophets
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Romans 3:2
Does this imply that non-Jews are not prophets?
toddpedlar
Iron Dramatist
actually the greek word there is "messages" - and I am fairly certain that the standard interpretation there is that the Jews had the Scriptures (which at that point were only the Old Testament).
Prior to God's narrowing his church down to a single family and nation--and actually we can probably take this up to the time of the entrance to Canaan--there were God's spokesmen (prophets) everywhere there was true faith. Examples: Melchizedek, Elihu, and even Balaam who (though he prostituted his gift) truly prophesied.
After the days of Moses, however, there are no true prophets (that I know of) outside of Israel. Indeed, unto them alone, where the church resided, God had entrusted his Word, first spoken and then recorded.
In the post-Israelite world, the international church is the "trustee" of the Bible.
After the days of Moses, however, there are no true prophets (that I know of) outside of Israel. Indeed, unto them alone, where the church resided, God had entrusted his Word, first spoken and then recorded.
In the post-Israelite world, the international church is the "trustee" of the Bible.
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