Hey everyone, this is my first post here. I've been reading a bunch of threads on PB for a while without actually being a member, so thanks to the ministers and learned layman out there who have been a great help.
First some background before the question. Since getting into the question about which manuscript family (Byzantine or Alexandrian) should be used for translations, I have come to be convinced that the Byzantine family of manuscripts contains the word of God. I also hold to some form of providential preservation by God of his word in this manuscript family, without necessarily coming to the conclusion that one of the TR translations is absolutely perfect.
So the question is, what was the development of the Textus Receptus translations from Erasmus to Scrivener? Did it get better? Did the men after Erasmus have the same manuscripts, better ones, more to use? In other words, were the seeming deficiency of Erasmus' manuscript sources, and therefore possible mistakes, corrected in the later TR's?
Blessings,
Jonty
First some background before the question. Since getting into the question about which manuscript family (Byzantine or Alexandrian) should be used for translations, I have come to be convinced that the Byzantine family of manuscripts contains the word of God. I also hold to some form of providential preservation by God of his word in this manuscript family, without necessarily coming to the conclusion that one of the TR translations is absolutely perfect.
So the question is, what was the development of the Textus Receptus translations from Erasmus to Scrivener? Did it get better? Did the men after Erasmus have the same manuscripts, better ones, more to use? In other words, were the seeming deficiency of Erasmus' manuscript sources, and therefore possible mistakes, corrected in the later TR's?
Blessings,
Jonty