I continue to battle with Paedobaptism vs. Credobaptism in my mind. I will, however, be returning to an OPC church that I worshipped at before. I've already told the Pastor that I'd like to talk to him more about this. I've recently listened to Bill Einwechter's defense of Credobaptism and it is, in my opinion, the best defense I've ever heard for the position. I still, however, continue to battle in my mind over it. I will be listening to Bahnsen's defense of Paedobaptism soon.
One of the problems I have with Credobaptists, however, is that they do not view the baptisms of Paedobaptists as valid. I will concede that this is a logical conclusion of their position, but I have a problem with it nonetheless. My question is this: as a Credo, would you withold the Lord's Supper from a Paedo since they do not have a valid baptism? I've heard many Baptists address this question already, but I'm interested in what some on this board will say.
My problem is this, if you answer yes than you would (logically) have to hold the position that you would have witheld the Lord's Supper from the Reformers. Even if you say no, than you would have to say that nobody ever had a valid baptism (including the Reformers) until the English Puritans came on the scene (I already know that Credos will make the argument that the Early Church was a Credo Church). I know that it would be a fallacy to reject the Credo position based on this reason alone, but it does cause me to second guess it when I think about it. I find it hard to believe that Calvin, Luther, Zwingli, Knox, Owen & Edwards did not have valid baptisms. It seems a little too extreme for me (no I'm not postmodern ).
[Edited on 11/04/2004 by Reformed1]
One of the problems I have with Credobaptists, however, is that they do not view the baptisms of Paedobaptists as valid. I will concede that this is a logical conclusion of their position, but I have a problem with it nonetheless. My question is this: as a Credo, would you withold the Lord's Supper from a Paedo since they do not have a valid baptism? I've heard many Baptists address this question already, but I'm interested in what some on this board will say.
My problem is this, if you answer yes than you would (logically) have to hold the position that you would have witheld the Lord's Supper from the Reformers. Even if you say no, than you would have to say that nobody ever had a valid baptism (including the Reformers) until the English Puritans came on the scene (I already know that Credos will make the argument that the Early Church was a Credo Church). I know that it would be a fallacy to reject the Credo position based on this reason alone, but it does cause me to second guess it when I think about it. I find it hard to believe that Calvin, Luther, Zwingli, Knox, Owen & Edwards did not have valid baptisms. It seems a little too extreme for me (no I'm not postmodern ).
[Edited on 11/04/2004 by Reformed1]