Kevin
Puritan Board Doctor
I refrained from posting this in an other thread because my comment was not germain to the OP, however...
I just want to point out that "re-baptism" IS "re-baptism"!
The common dodge of calling re-baptism a *non re-baptism* since the first one is no baptism at all, but what we are doing is a *true* scriptual baptism. This is the logical fallacy of "begging the question".
I know we all like to claim that our practice is the "biblical way". I refer to the practice of infant baptism as the "biblical practice" in conversations & sermons.
However it is more than a little disingenious to claim that we are not engaged in "re-baptism" when in fact there can be no other name for the practice. It is fair game to claim that the previous baptism is nul, or irregular, or heretical, but claiming that it never happened is just silly.
Just my about a personal pet pieve.
I just want to point out that "re-baptism" IS "re-baptism"!
The common dodge of calling re-baptism a *non re-baptism* since the first one is no baptism at all, but what we are doing is a *true* scriptual baptism. This is the logical fallacy of "begging the question".
I know we all like to claim that our practice is the "biblical way". I refer to the practice of infant baptism as the "biblical practice" in conversations & sermons.
However it is more than a little disingenious to claim that we are not engaged in "re-baptism" when in fact there can be no other name for the practice. It is fair game to claim that the previous baptism is nul, or irregular, or heretical, but claiming that it never happened is just silly.
Just my about a personal pet pieve.