Confessor
Puritan Board Senior
This is somewhat of a regression to an older topic, but it is one that I never had answered, and I am curious what a satisfying answer would be:
According to this commentary on the WCF (I think it's a commentary; correct me if I'm wrong), the following prescriptions are given for the different spheres of worship:
Now, I realize that it "makes sense" to say, for example, that we would not administer the sacraments in a family setting, or that we would not have the Word preached in private worship. However, what Scriptural basis do we have to make such distinctions between these spheres of worship? Besides the fact of obviousness or intuition, on what grounds may we claim that what is commanded in worship is commanded only in one sphere of worship?
According to this commentary on the WCF (I think it's a commentary; correct me if I'm wrong), the following prescriptions are given for the different spheres of worship:
The worship of God in the public assembly is to consist in the reading, preaching, and hearing of the Word; prayer, singing of psalms; and the administration and receiving of the sacraments instituted by him.
Family worship, which ought to be performed by every family, ordinarily morning and evening, consists in prayer, reading the Scriptures, and singing praises.
Secret worship is most plainly enjoined by our Lord. Matt. vi. 6; Eph, vi. 18. In this duty every one, apart by himself, is to spend some time in prayer, reading the Scriptures, holy meditation, and serious self-examination.
Now, I realize that it "makes sense" to say, for example, that we would not administer the sacraments in a family setting, or that we would not have the Word preached in private worship. However, what Scriptural basis do we have to make such distinctions between these spheres of worship? Besides the fact of obviousness or intuition, on what grounds may we claim that what is commanded in worship is commanded only in one sphere of worship?