Repentance is only for Jews?

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W.C. Dean

Puritan Board Sophomore
A Bible study group my mother is in has always been solid and I appreciate the woman who started it but someone just put this on their facebook page. I'm not even sure what she is attempting to say. It seems like she's insinuating repentance isn't for non-Jews and unnecessary for justification? Please give me your thoughts and how one might respond to this.

"I'm a little behind in this months study, I just finished day 1 of week 3 but I would love to start a discussion on repentance. I was challenged by a mentor a few months ago to look into false gospels. She has an online mission to bring fellow brothers and sisters out of Calvinism for instance. She defines repentance only as a return to God, nothing to do with confession of sin. It is a command only to Jews and believers, not to Gentiles or unbelievers. It is not in the book of John, which only says to believe and be saved. When you look up the definition, depending where your looking, you could find either or both. So the study I did today looked at Acts 3:19, it says repent and turn back in most versions but not in KJV, there is no turn back just repent. Anyways, I'm not sure this makes sense but it is fascinating! Thought?"
 
First, the KJV of Act.3:19 includes the expression, "and be converted," which is the "turn back/around" some other translations have.

As for the one mentor: seems she is reviving the terms of the old (30yrs) "lordship" debate, between men like ZaneHodges (free grace movement) and JohnMacArthur (less antinomian, moved to a calvinistic position).

The Reformed confessions have significant difference with JMA's critique, also critiquing him; however they would agree with JMA that the free grace movement was the actual proponent of a false gospel, which treated obedience to Jesus as a second blessing of sorts, a further stage of Christianity. The idea being: one can be a Christian, yet just a "carnal Christian;" ideally one should aspire to be a "spiritual Christian."​

A distinction can be made between ZH's view and the exact notion being spoken of in the comment. But among the red-flags is the idea that certain parts of the Bible are relevant to certain populations. This is a recipe for turning any element which seems like a challenge to the reader into a convenient throw-away, "not relevant to me or my identity."

The idea that some words in the Bible are for Jews, and others for Gentiles, is a further defect of Dispensationalism. Depending on the guru with the Big Sharpie, the line(s) dividing what is relevant to the modern believer from what is passe (or the business of a future age) will be drawn in various places. This is why the OT is not very interesting to some churches, or even the Gospels taken all together besides what they contain about Jesus' death and how God regards it.

It seems as if the commentor may regard John's Gospel as the "Gentile" text, perhaps to the exclusion of the others? Acts may not become relevant until ch.10 (the calling of Cornelius). The Epistles of Paul are more relevant than anything else, but they too may need parsing between something Paul says to Jews, and what he says to the Gentiles. These are some examples of the lines that can be drawn according to this method of interpretation.

I can't really tell if the commentor fully buys into the mentor's statement about repentance. We tend to trust our mentors, who have been reliable guides in the past; but we (wisely) don't always accept their views uncritically.

John 12:40 uses the expression (from an OT quote) "...Lest they should understand with their hearts and turn," στραφῶσιν. That last word is not metanoia, the ordinary Gk. word for repentance; but in Is.6:10 it is the Heb. word shuv, which is often translated or given the gloss, "repent." But again, if this passage is taken as if it speaks to Jews alone, it won't make any difference to someone who identifies only with "Gentile-relevant" texts.

It seems like the proposition is that Jews need to "repent," while Gentiles just "confess" (admit?) their sins, or that they are sinners. Is there any apprehension that one's believing life must be active in sin-mortification, or else it is a suspect confession? Not sure Rom.6 can be read otherwise.

There is clearly too much dependence on a word, and not enough on a concept that is taught by means of many words, to give it fullness and depth. Paul uses "repentance" in 2Cor.7:9-10. In 12:21, he expresses his sorrow that those in the church who have not repented will have to be dealt with severely.
 
Act 17:29 Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device.
Act 17:30 And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:
Act 17:31 Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.

If I remember correctly some in the Non-Lordship category of the debate also redefined repentance to mean we are to correct our thinking about who God is.

Act 26:20 but declared first to those in Damascus, then in Jerusalem and throughout all the region of Judea, and also to the Gentiles, that they should repent and turn to God, performing deeds in keeping with their repentance.
 
Act.11:18 When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, “Then God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance to life.”

Act.17:30 Truly, these times of ignorance God overlooked, but now commands all men everywhere to repent,

Act.20:21 testifying to Jews, and also to Greeks, repentance toward God and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ.

Act.26:20 but declared first to those in Damascus and in Jerusalem, and throughout all the region of Judea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent, turn to God, and do works befitting repentance.
 
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