Scott Bushey
Puritanboard Commissioner
To be fair to both sides of the issue, here is something by M. Horne. It is from Hodge's position:
Hodge on RC Baptism
Hodge on RC Baptism
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Originally posted by Jeff_Bartel
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
And that is because Rome is not a church, any more than those other institutions (the family or the college).
And this is another related question that is vital in answering the validity of RC's baptism. Is the RC a church in ANY sense?
The WCF seems to suggest that Rome is in a sense a church:
VI. There is no other head of the church but the Lord Jesus Christ.[13] Nor can the pope of Rome, in any sense, be head thereof.[14] [but is that Antichrist, that man of sin, and son of perdition, that exalts himself, in the Church, against Christ and all that is called God.]
I am still thinking through this myself, but it seems to me that even us reformed folk recognize Rome as a church on SOME level even today. What do we call it? The Roman Catholic CHURCH. This is a tough issue for me to be sure, as I agree that it is surely a synagogue of Satan. I don't want to come off as defending Rome.
Originally posted by Jeff_Bartel
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
If Rome can validly administer the sacraments, why would you refuse to partake in the means of grace of their administration of the Supper?
Again, if I met a pagan that had just converted to Christ, and he desired to become baptized, I would never recommend him go to a RC to do it. Neither would I recommend him go to the local "evangelical" mega-Arminian church to do it either. I would count them both to be valid, but not as pure.
Yet because of the thing signified by baptism (a ONE-TIME event), I would feel safer accepting a Roman baptism (while not calling it pure by any means).
Originally posted by Scott Bushey
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
Originally posted by Scott Bushey
Please show me one instance in the whole of scripture where someone was rebaptised?
Scott, everyone here would agree that "rebaptism" is an error; and the issue is whether so-called "baptisms" like Rome's and my on-campus friend's are really baptisms at all in the first place.
Chris,
As I have said, baptisms from Rome have always been seen as valid; a year ago, I was rejecting them for the same principles Ben is saying. After further studies, I see why Rome's baptism is valid as Zipporah's circumcision. How many unregenerate pastors out there place the sign weekly? Are their baptisms any less valid?
Originally posted by Larry Hughes
Telling an infant who was baptized by sprinkling as an infant who is now an adult that he/she must be baptized via immersion and their former baptism is not based in the Gospel and promise, but that they need one based in their faith is another Gospel and damned (since faith does not equal Gospel, the basis for rebaptism is demonic).
I´m still waiting to hear your answer on whether a low-church evangelical friend of mine baptizing her newly-converted friend in their dorm with water an the Trinity would be a valid baptism.
Originally posted by Scott Bushey
Please show me one instance in the whole of scripture where someone was rebaptised?
Originally posted by Scott Bushey
By the way, not to sidetrack the thread, How'd you like the cigars?
Ask a Baptist why they rebaptize. They must define the first as invalid thus denying the true work of God and His sign, so that the "œrebaptism" becomes to them the only real baptism. This they can only do if baptism itself is rooted in actual faith rather than the promise and thus it must communicate incorrectly. That is baptism in that paradigm does not communicate the Gospel or the promise of eternal life but the recipient´s possession of faith. This is why when they foist by communication and doubt upon children of infant baptism to be "œrebaptized" they are for them communicating to them that God has NOT promised them eternal life in the Gospel of Jesus Christ in which they (infants baptized) should trust (which IS faith by the way) and onto works.
This is why at the end of the day it is fool hard to even try to argue with a Credo giving credence to that form of doctrine for it is at the end of the day not just eschew a bit but entirely different. It is akin to half-way compromising with arminian theology saying we only differ by degree, we don´t. We differ as in black and white, being and non-being, on this issue.
Scott, I might-maybe-possibly would be induced to consider your position if I were smoking on some more of those cigars... [\quote]
Too funny!!! The saints enjoying fellowship even in a spirited debate, now that's the way it ought to be!
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
Originally posted by Jeff_Bartel
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
And that is because Rome is not a church, any more than those other institutions (the family or the college).
And this is another related question that is vital in answering the validity of RC's baptism. Is the RC a church in ANY sense?
The WCF seems to suggest that Rome is in a sense a church:
VI. There is no other head of the church but the Lord Jesus Christ.[13] Nor can the pope of Rome, in any sense, be head thereof.[14] [but is that Antichrist, that man of sin, and son of perdition, that exalts himself, in the Church, against Christ and all that is called God.]
I am still thinking through this myself, but it seems to me that even us reformed folk recognize Rome as a church on SOME level even today. What do we call it? The Roman Catholic CHURCH. This is a tough issue for me to be sure, as I agree that it is surely a synagogue of Satan. I don't want to come off as defending Rome.
Jeff, I´m at least glad you´re being open and consistent enough to acknowledge that this issue is essentially dependent on the question of whether or not Rome is a true church. From my experience (including on this board), most of those who affirm Rome´s baptism do so acknowledging that Rome is not a true church in any sense, and yet still attempt to affirm her baptism. That was Calvin´s position, and it is the inconsistency that I usually see accompanying those who affirm Rome´s baptism.
So concerning the question of Rome´s status as a true church or not, I honestly have to say I´m not sure how to interpret the clause "œin the Church" in the Confession, and would value input from more learned people on the board regarding that clause, and Westminster´s view on Rome as an institution at large. Even so, I have a hard time seeing how the previous section could be interpreted in any way so as to still render Rome a true church in any sense, and how an institution could ever be a "œChurch of Christ" and a "œsynagogue of Satan" at the same time: "œThe purest Churches under heaven are subject both to mixture and error; and some have so degenerated, as to become no Churches of Christ, but synagogues of Satan. Nevertheless, there shall be always a Church on earth to worship God according to His will." Assuming that the divines were mindful of Rome in writing this section as well, the middle sentence seems to absolutely claim that she is no part of the Church; particularly, the "œnevertheless" would not make sense if those "œsynagogues of Satan" were still true churches in some sense, for the whole point of it is to say (in effect), "œIn spite of that, there will always at least be a true visible Church in which to worship." That would only make sense if the "œthat" was saying that some former churches had ceased to be true visible churches.
Furthermore, if Rome were still a true church in any sense, there would be significant implications for the Reformation, and the legitimacy of the Protestant churches as a whole; it would have been (and would still be) a giant schism, since the Reformers would not have had the right to depart if Rome had still been a true church. That was certainly Calvin´s view, as was shown in the previous threads I referenced near the beginning of this thread. Also, in addition to the implications for the legitimate or schismatic nature of the Reformation and Protestantism, this issue gets to the heart of the Gospel itself: For the teaching of the true Gospel is the first necessary mark of a true church. No Gospel, no church. Hence, if Rome is still a true church in any sense, then the Gospel she teaches, though tainted, must be said to still at least be pure enough to be saving; and in that case, Catholics could be saved not only in spite of their church´s "œgospel," but because of it, and even Catholics who fully believe every bit of the "œgospel" taught by Rome would be saved by it.
There are plenty of instances when those who had been circumcized as children were baptized as adults. Just read the NT. So how can the two be equal if both were done to people? Is there not some difference like, at the very least, a development of the New Covenant?
Larry, I will be straightforward also.
I do not consider the Roman Catholic Church to be a true church. It long ago abdicated any pretense of being a church that proclaimed the true gospel of grace. It is a false church. I rank it as not much better than the Mormon's, SDA or the JW's.
I fail to see how a baptism, that is administered by a religious sect that is an enemy of Christ, can be considered valid.
On a sidenote, John Piper's church no longer requires those who were baptized as infants to be rebaptized (I am not sure on this, but I believe Roman Catholic baptism is not recognized as valid). As a credo, I initially criticized Piper's decision. While not quite there yet, I find myself being more empathetic to his reasoning. If Piper's stance on those who were baptized as infants becomes widely accepted in credo churches, how does that effect the contention of your post? While remaining firmly credo, a Baptist church may recognize an infant baptism in a true church, one that proclaims the gospel of grace. Roman Catholic baptism would not be recognized per reasons I gave earlier.
I think the distinction that I am trying to make -- in keeping with Hodge, Rutherford, Turretin, Calvin, et al. -- is that Rome lacks the marks of a true church but has not lost the characteristics of a material church.
Originally posted by Scott Bushey
Jeff,
The link was helpful! It's funny how my position has changed since we discussed this previously. I agree w/ Andrew in this quote from the thread you cite:
I think the distinction that I am trying to make -- in keeping with Hodge, Rutherford, Turretin, Calvin, et al. -- is that Rome lacks the marks of a true church but has not lost the characteristics of a material church.
In light of this, Rome's baptism would be valid.
Originally posted by Jeff_Bartel
.... what is the difference between calling an institution a "church" in the broadest sense, or just a gathering? What makes a church a church? We can call Rome a false church, but we still tack on the term "church" when speaking of that whore. I wouldn't call Jehovah's witnesses a "church." It's more of a cult. A gathering. Technically speaking, Rome isn't a cult. It may come close (and I might WANT to call it a cult, under the pope), but I don't think it technically meets the qualifications.
1. Is a church a true church because she administers the word, discipline and sacraments validly?
Or...
2. Are the word, discipline and sacraments valid because they are adminstered by a true church?
3. Reformed theology calls for more than simple formal compliance in terms of element and words of institution for the right administration of the sacraments.