Revelation 22:1-5

Barney

Puritan Board Freshman
Verse 3
ESV:
No longer will there be anything accursed.
KJV:
And there shall be no more curse.


At church on Sunday the message was on Revelation 22:1-5 using the ESV. It was preached from a postmill viewpoint with a
clear message that it has already happened. I'm amill. Verse 3 stood out to me. In my limited understanding I thought that the curse in the KJV here refers to the curse in Genesis and includes the curse on the earth as well as man.
Is that correct?
If it is, then how can that verse apply to now?
The earth still has thorns, and Christians, although regenerate, still live with the effects of the curse.
 

Scottish Presbyterian

Puritan Board Sophomore
It can’t apply now.

It sounds like the message was from a preterist viewpoint - I suppose it could have been postmil too, but historically, and logically, the two don’t sit well together.
 

Barney

Puritan Board Freshman
It can’t apply now.

It sounds like the message was from a preterist viewpoint - I suppose it could have been postmil too, but historically, and logically, the two don’t sit well together.
I know the preacher is partial preterist, postmill, theonomist.
Although he believes all of Revelation has past except for the bodily resurrection and the second advent.
I just can't see how anyone can say verse 3 has happened.
 

Barney

Puritan Board Freshman
It can’t apply now.

It sounds like the message was from a preterist viewpoint - I suppose it could have been postmil too, but historically, and logically, the two don’t sit well together.
I didn't know preterist (in this case partial) and postmill don't fit together well? Any articles I can read on this?
 
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