It seems to be agreed on by most that the first two and a half chapters of Paul's epistle to the church at Rome is that "all the world may become guilty before God" (3v19), and that "we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin" (3v9).
Given that, how do verses 6-13 of chapter 2 fit in?
Is it speaking of evangelical obedience (v.7 "patient continuance in well doing"), or in absolute terms of needing to be perfect in order to attain unto the righteousness of the law?
The second of these options makes most sense to me, fitting in with what I see as Paul showing the Jews that despite their many privileges, they were sinners along with the Gentiles, and that justification is not by the law, but rather, blessed is "the man unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works" (4v6).
Is this the correct interpretation?
Given that, how do verses 6-13 of chapter 2 fit in?
Is it speaking of evangelical obedience (v.7 "patient continuance in well doing"), or in absolute terms of needing to be perfect in order to attain unto the righteousness of the law?
The second of these options makes most sense to me, fitting in with what I see as Paul showing the Jews that despite their many privileges, they were sinners along with the Gentiles, and that justification is not by the law, but rather, blessed is "the man unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works" (4v6).
Is this the correct interpretation?