baron
Puritan Board Graduate
Moderators if this is not the right forum please move.
I have a few diffrent questions regarding John Calvin commentaries, KJV, and Latin. I was not sure where to post so I choose this forum. Seeing how a couple questions deal with translations.
Let me start by saying I'm reading Romans in John Calvin commentaries. I'm in chapter 8:16 and the KJV says: The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God.
In Latin it says: Ipse enim Spiritum simul testificatur spirituai nostro quod sumus filii Dei:
Question 1) I do not know Latin and was wondering if someone who does will translate into English.
On page 299 verse 16 starts The Spirit himself. Plus just about every other bible version I checked say's himself.
Question 2) Is the KJV refering to Spirit as a it? Or is this archaic lanuage? I can't see calling the Spirit a it.
Now here is where I get silly. It just struck me this morning that while reading Romans 8 in the KJV in his commentary, that is not what John Calvin was using.
Question 3) Was he using a Latin text? Is that why they put the Latin side by side with the English?
Question 4) And can the Latin text be trusted seeing how I was told it was Roman Catholic.
Question 5) If Calvin was using inferior Bible text can we trust his commentaries or writtings?
Thank you.
I have a few diffrent questions regarding John Calvin commentaries, KJV, and Latin. I was not sure where to post so I choose this forum. Seeing how a couple questions deal with translations.
Let me start by saying I'm reading Romans in John Calvin commentaries. I'm in chapter 8:16 and the KJV says: The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God.
In Latin it says: Ipse enim Spiritum simul testificatur spirituai nostro quod sumus filii Dei:
Question 1) I do not know Latin and was wondering if someone who does will translate into English.
On page 299 verse 16 starts The Spirit himself. Plus just about every other bible version I checked say's himself.
Question 2) Is the KJV refering to Spirit as a it? Or is this archaic lanuage? I can't see calling the Spirit a it.
Now here is where I get silly. It just struck me this morning that while reading Romans 8 in the KJV in his commentary, that is not what John Calvin was using.
Question 3) Was he using a Latin text? Is that why they put the Latin side by side with the English?
Question 4) And can the Latin text be trusted seeing how I was told it was Roman Catholic.
Question 5) If Calvin was using inferior Bible text can we trust his commentaries or writtings?
Thank you.