Romans 8:29/Romans 11:2 (ACTIVE VERB) vs. 1 Peter 1:2 and Acts 2:23 (ACCUSATIVE NOUN)

[Alex Stophel]

I had a quick question. I was doing a word study in Logos today and noticed that in the Romans passages above, foreknew (προγινώσκω) is used. This, of course, is an active verb. However, in 1 Peter and Acts the term for foreknowledge is πρόγνωσις.

What is the implicational differences between the word being in the verb form and the noun form? I've heard James White use the argument that because it's an active verb in Romans, that it is something that God is doing, not something that he is merely knowing. However, what would that mean for the cases where πρόγνωσις is used?

Thanks a lot guys and God bless!

Alex

 

[chbrooking]

I don't see any difference in implication. If I say, "Jim fed the bear", Jim is the subject of the active verb. If I say, "The bear enjoyed the feeding", you still have a verbal idea in the noun "feeding", which raises the question about who fed it. As God is the subject of the verb in the one case, and the subject of the verbal idea behind the noun in the other, I don't see a difference in implication at all.