BrettLemke
Puritan Board Freshman
Hey all,
I've been studying the application of the RPW and one of the arguments I've run up against for the inclusion of man made hymns, instruments and various other things into worship under the guise of the RPW (we cannot do in public worship but what God has given positive warrant for) is by using the argument of the priesthood of all believers (henceforth: PoAB). Now, on its face, I think this is a misuse of Scripture, especially Exodus 19:5-6 and 1 Peter 2:9, but I want to understand why this argument is used. Luther has been referenced quite often in conjunction of this understanding of the PoAB. Can any of you fine chaps direct me to the exegetical arguments that would defend this position? I just want to make sure I understand the position so as not to argue against a straw man.
I am also interested in reading anything helpful regarding the standard Continental/Puritan understanding of this too. Thanks very much for your help!
I've been studying the application of the RPW and one of the arguments I've run up against for the inclusion of man made hymns, instruments and various other things into worship under the guise of the RPW (we cannot do in public worship but what God has given positive warrant for) is by using the argument of the priesthood of all believers (henceforth: PoAB). Now, on its face, I think this is a misuse of Scripture, especially Exodus 19:5-6 and 1 Peter 2:9, but I want to understand why this argument is used. Luther has been referenced quite often in conjunction of this understanding of the PoAB. Can any of you fine chaps direct me to the exegetical arguments that would defend this position? I just want to make sure I understand the position so as not to argue against a straw man.
I am also interested in reading anything helpful regarding the standard Continental/Puritan understanding of this too. Thanks very much for your help!