SolaScriptura
Puritanboard Brimstone
I have a friend who proposed the following to me and I haven´t had much time to think it over"¦ but I´d like your thoughts:
Ok, I´m fine with that part. But then he brings up this:
I then stumbled onto this article by Gary Long which argues essentially the same thing. I´ll confess that I tend to hold the distributive view"¦ but I believe that his position would resonate with Reformed ecclesiology.
Any thoughts?
Ben
Sinful man deserves only wrath, in fact, God´s perfectly holy justice prevents Him from ever just "œletting something slide." Even when God shows grace or mercy to a sinful person, the sin hasn´t just been "œlet go." God demonstrates grace or mercy to us because the wrath due the sinner was imputed to Christ.
Ok, I´m fine with that part. But then he brings up this:
So where does "œcommon grace" fit into the picture? It seems to me that for ANY grace "“ even "œcommon" grace "“ to be given to people, it requires some sort of imputation of the guilt of those people away from them so that they can receive something, anything, other than wrath. I think that it is possible that 1 Tim 4:10 helps explain this... the world receives some true benefit from Christ´s work, even if it isn´t eschatologically salvific.
I then stumbled onto this article by Gary Long which argues essentially the same thing. I´ll confess that I tend to hold the distributive view"¦ but I believe that his position would resonate with Reformed ecclesiology.
Any thoughts?
Ben