Salvation by grace through faith, apart from works

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Alex Foo

Puritan Board Freshman
Dear Puritans

Been a while since I last posted.

Recently I had a sister (who is based in controversial country starts with c) who is confused with the soteriology. I'm referring to the importance of salvation by grace through faith, apart from work.

Apparently, argument comes when there are verses that appear to refute the doctrine. So she has cited Matt 7:21-23, Rev 19:7-8 (basically just pick up those proof texts asserting the need of sinners to add on works for salvation).

Especially when it comes to Rev 19:8, I don't think I can move further. What does it mean by 'righteous acts of the saints'? Whenever I come up with defense (because I learned systematic theology, and I know the importance of having that big picture in doctrines), she will resort to finding another verses to raise doubt.

She is a believer, just that I couldn't discern her theological background yet. I'm just hope that she received the correct teaching of scripture.

Any comment is appreciated. Especially on experience dealing with issue like this. Thank you.
 
Dear Puritans

Been a while since I last posted.

Recently I had a sister (who is based in controversial country starts with c) who is confused with the soteriology. I'm referring to the importance of salvation by grace through faith, apart from work.

Apparently, argument comes when there are verses that appear to refute the doctrine. So she has cited Matt 7:21-23, Rev 19:7-8 (basically just pick up those proof texts asserting the need of sinners to add on works for salvation).

Especially when it comes to Rev 19:8, I don't think I can move further. What does it mean by 'righteous acts of the saints'? Whenever I come up with defense (because I learned systematic theology, and I know the importance of having that big picture in doctrines), she will resort to finding another verses to raise doubt.

She is a believer, just that I couldn't discern her theological background yet. I'm just hope that she received the correct teaching of scripture.

Any comment is appreciated. Especially on experience dealing with issue like this. Thank you.
We are legally declared justified by nothing but grace through faith. All of our obedience and good works point to the evidence of our belief and justification. Justification is the central focus it seems, and that is a complete gift to us from God. Ephesians is a good place to go in reference to this. We should not undermine good works, but they could never do anything to add to our justification.
 
If you are speaking with someone who is unteachable, if you may offer up almost any helpful reckoning with a particular verse; and in fact this person is only waiting for the proverbial "silver bullet" to slay his/her unslayable dragon-position, you are not dealing with one who is now (if possibly in the future) honestly open to persuasion. Rather, they may see you as the one needing persuasion of the error of your ways.

Supposing in hope, this person is in real difficulty, is agonizing over the disconnect he/she feels is deadlocking the mind on this issue, how may it be answered?

Beside the reality that true believers produce works consistent with their profession...

Mt.7:21 is part of the Sermon on the Mount (SotM). There is no possible way to honestly read the early portions of the SotM, and conclude by the end that: "Myself having done better righteousness in legal terms than the Scribes and Pharisees, then having obeyed my Father perfectly, on that basis I will enter the kingdom." That attitude utterly misses the rawest contrast set forth in the SotM. The man who truly desires (as a God given yearning) to be part of this wonderful Teacher's kingdom, instinctively recognizes that on the basis of his works, he can actually have no place in it, but is excluded. He begs the Teacher for a solution, and finds that what is required to enter is exactly his recognition, and his request for grace. That is the only basis. And having been brought in the kingdom, his right to remain forever is validated by the works produced by his Teacher through him. Only the Teacher has such obedient works that satisfy the Father's perfect demands.

Rev.19:8 has seen better and worse translations. The KJV is actually one of the better, and well renders the verbs "it was granted" (gifted, graced, unearned), and (in passive form) "she should be arrayed" (rather than reflexive, "array herself") in fine linen, which is the righteousness (sometimes rendered in the plural, as it is such; or glosssed as righteous deeds) of the saints. First, note the grace/gift-quality of the authoritative act in the verse. Second, the idea that this bride-to-be is dressed by others (as by ladies in waiting), and not herself. Third, what she is dressed in is this "white linen" which constitutes her righteousness. The verse does not say that these are her deeds by virtue of her doing them. It simply says that these deeds constituting her righteousness in the bridegroom's sight have been put on her as adornment. If an interpreter insists that the deeds have to be hers by performance, suffice to say that the demand (while syntactically within the range of possible options) is neither required by the text, and it contradicts the internal logic of the Bible.
 
Ephesians 2:8-10 seems to set out the relationship between salvation and works fairly clearly.
 
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