JTB.SDG
Puritan Board Junior
The 2nd use of the Law has often been labeled as restraining sin; especially civil restraint. Nicholas Batzig has an article (feedingonchrist.com) in which he argues (in passing) that the second use of the Law is NOT about civil restraint. Citing the Institutes, he says that just like the first use, this second use, according to Calvin, was to drive sinners to Christ, but in a different way: the first use was for the self-righteous/legalist/pharisees--it drives them to Christ by exposing their sin; but the second use is actually for the unrighteous/lawless/prodigal sons--it drives them to Christ but in a different way: by threatening God's punishment for sin.
Reading Calvin himself (Institutes, 2.7.10-11) I'm left a bit confused. Calvin seems to be saying BOTH. But it almost seems as though his thoughts aren't fully developed here. On the one hand, he says the Law serves to restrain sin; and on the other he does say that in this way the Law leads the lawless to Christ by fear of punishment; but it seems as though he says the Law restrains sin AND THUS leads them to Christ by fear of punishment, which doesn't completely make sense to me. What would make sense is that the primary function of the second use of the Law is to *Instil fear* of God's punishment; and that instilling of fear has 2 effects: on the one hand, to restrain sin; but on the other, to lead to Christ. But I'm not sure if Calvin is actually saying this. Any thoughts on this? Many thanks in advance.
Reading Calvin himself (Institutes, 2.7.10-11) I'm left a bit confused. Calvin seems to be saying BOTH. But it almost seems as though his thoughts aren't fully developed here. On the one hand, he says the Law serves to restrain sin; and on the other he does say that in this way the Law leads the lawless to Christ by fear of punishment; but it seems as though he says the Law restrains sin AND THUS leads them to Christ by fear of punishment, which doesn't completely make sense to me. What would make sense is that the primary function of the second use of the Law is to *Instil fear* of God's punishment; and that instilling of fear has 2 effects: on the one hand, to restrain sin; but on the other, to lead to Christ. But I'm not sure if Calvin is actually saying this. Any thoughts on this? Many thanks in advance.
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