C. M. Sheffield
Puritan Board Graduate
It seems useful to note that distilled beverages with much higher alcoholic content weren't fully popularised until the 18th century. I'm sure that the difference of modern alcoholic beverages from those in Christ's day has to play into the abolitionist movement , AA, and the creation of grape juice.
Having thought more about the discussions I can't think of history as a deciding factor as we're in a different historical situation with regard to what alcoholic beverages are, and as many people weren't allowed to have communion under both kinds in church history. Given that both are different than what Christ drank, I still don't have a problem with wine or grape juice as 'the fruit of the vine'. I am thankful reading the discussions that in either case that communion is about the joy of sinners being accepted at the table of the Lord.
First, it must be noted that while alcohol has surely evolved over the centuries, it was no less alcohol in the days of Noah (2300 B.C.) and Lot (1900 B.C.). If it was strong enough in those days as to render Lot ignorant to the fact that he was fornicating with his daughters then we can safely assume that they had figured out how to make "strong" drink. One needs only consider the many uses of the phrase "strong drink" in the Bible (esp. Proverbs). Drunkenness was a problem in the OT, the NT and throughout the centuries thereafter. It remains a problem today.
Secondly, while history should not be primary deciding factor, it must not be ignored either. Once the counsel of Scripture has been sought out, in matters where Scripture may not speak explicitly, history is a good place to turn for insight and wisdom into the matter at hand.
As for the Roman Catholic practice of denying the communion cup to the laity, this was a very late development of the high middle ages and not characteristic of the Church before that point. It was the effect of the Roman doctrine of transubstantiation which did not appear until the 1200s. Since they believed that the wine was the real blood of Christ, the Roman Church feared it getting wasted on men's beards or split on the floor (ergo the reason Roman priests generally don't have beards). So the Roman Church began only allowing the priest to partake of the wine. But this was not in stone until the late 1300 or early 1400s with the Reformation around the corner. Suffice to say the majority practice of the Church throughout history was communion in both kinds.
The real question being examined isn't so much "is using grape juice ok?" but instead "Are churches that use wine exclusively or at all causing Christians to 'stumble' and sin?" The answer to that question must be an emphatic NO!
I have laid down my explanation to this answer in earlier posts. I would encourage you to consult them if clarity is needed.
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