king of fools
Puritan Board Freshman
I thought I would post this in it's own thread to see if someone can shed some light on this issue for me.
This is specifically dealing with Matt 19:9 and the term porneia - "fornication" or "sexual immorailty".
I heard a sermon/lecture by James M. Boice on this issue. He took a different view on this subject than most people, and admitted that he was in the extreme minority. I'm not certain if this is a well-known objection or not. I thought I would ask as I am ignorant to the history of this view.
Boice claimed that the term porneia dealt primarily in the context with breaking of the vow during the engagement period, where it would be found that one of the two parties had previously been involved in sexual conduct and lied about it. He said this would be before the official "marriage" began, but it would still have been in the legally-bound engagement.
The big objection he states is this. The punishment for adultery is death. Why have a death penalty and divorce? It would seem that there would be no need for divorce if the person had be dealt capital punishment.
Anyone have any thoughts on this?
This is specifically dealing with Matt 19:9 and the term porneia - "fornication" or "sexual immorailty".
I heard a sermon/lecture by James M. Boice on this issue. He took a different view on this subject than most people, and admitted that he was in the extreme minority. I'm not certain if this is a well-known objection or not. I thought I would ask as I am ignorant to the history of this view.
Boice claimed that the term porneia dealt primarily in the context with breaking of the vow during the engagement period, where it would be found that one of the two parties had previously been involved in sexual conduct and lied about it. He said this would be before the official "marriage" began, but it would still have been in the legally-bound engagement.
The big objection he states is this. The punishment for adultery is death. Why have a death penalty and divorce? It would seem that there would be no need for divorce if the person had be dealt capital punishment.
Anyone have any thoughts on this?