Kaalvenist
Puritan Board Sophomore
Brian, are you attempting to "prove" the difference between the two by simply stating or asserting it? That is not a valid proof; I might as well prove my position by quoting the Westminster Confession.Originally posted by BaptistCanuk
By the way, clear Scriptural proof that the Church existed in the NT.
OT=Israel
NT=Church (both Jews and Gentiles)
The two are completely different. That is scriptural.
Brian, I'm trying to begin a theological debate with you; you continue to ignore and bypass the texts that I want to examine; you continue to furnish no proof for your position; and you have the temerity to claim that I don't want to get into a theological debate with you because I know you're right?!? Are you serious?Originally posted by BaptistCanuk
The reason you won't get into a theological debate is because you know I'm right.
Brian, I am an Amillennial Historicist. I do not understand the Revelation in a literalistic fashion. But, as I said before, that is a discussion for another forum.Originally posted by BaptistCanuk
Whether or not you believe in a "Great Tribulation" the Book of Revelation teaches a time of judgment against Israel. If the Church is Israel, you had better get ready for God's judgment against you.