Anthony DeNicola
Puritan Board Freshman
I have a question about the word “might” that we see apear in a lot of text . For example .
“For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him (might) be saved.”
John 3:17 KJV
“that he (might) sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word, that he (might)present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.”
Ephesians 5:26-27 KJV
“For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we (might)be made the righteousness of God in him.”
2 Corinthians 5:21 KJV
All of these verses have “might” in them which would impact the way people read these verses . It wouldnt suprise me that many people reject Calvinism because they take verses like this to mean may or may not happpen .
With my little to no knowledge of Greek , it seems that the reason “might” is there is because the mood in the Greek is in the subjunctive . Could someone please explain why the subjunctive is used ? And how we are to understand it ? It’s even used in John 3:16 as well.
“For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him (might) be saved.”
John 3:17 KJV
“that he (might) sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word, that he (might)present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.”
Ephesians 5:26-27 KJV
“For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we (might)be made the righteousness of God in him.”
2 Corinthians 5:21 KJV
All of these verses have “might” in them which would impact the way people read these verses . It wouldnt suprise me that many people reject Calvinism because they take verses like this to mean may or may not happpen .
With my little to no knowledge of Greek , it seems that the reason “might” is there is because the mood in the Greek is in the subjunctive . Could someone please explain why the subjunctive is used ? And how we are to understand it ? It’s even used in John 3:16 as well.