Text or Translation — When the Times of Refreshing Shall Come, or That they May Come?

Sam Jer

Puritan Board Sophomore
The King James Translation (called the Authorised Version by some) translates Acts 3:19 in the following manner:
”Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord;” (Acts 3:19)

However, the version that I remembered read this quite diffrently. The version I remembered agrees more with the translation commonly known as the English Standard Version:
”Repent therefore, and turn back, that your sins may be blotted out, that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord”

Is this a matter where the Greek copies that these translations were made of differ, or does it come down to a diffrent interpetation of the same Greek words? If it is a matter of interpetation, what makes it able to go both ways? If it is a diffrence in the copies, what does the picture look like between didfrent copies and editions (TR, Critical, Majority)?
 
There is a slight difference in mss. but it doesn't affect the unit under question: ὅπως ἂν ἔλθωσιν καιροὶ ἀναψύξεως (hopōs an elthōsin kairoi anapsyxeōs). This is a translation choice.

The AV sets forth a temporal interpretation with a sequence. Repent and be converted; then, at some future point when the refreshing comes your sins will be fully blotted out. It is an eschatological reading. Refreshing is equated with something significant in the Messianic age that is foretold by the prophets.

The ESV gives you the consequential interpretation. It implies that repentance leads to refreshing as cause and effect. Sins are blotted out and refreshing comes as a result of repenting and turning back. This points to a present spiritual blessing.

Most modern translations prefer to read it as a result clause. This is in keeping with the usual sense of ὅπως ἄν (hopōs an). However, the context is speaking of a restitution that takes place after national repentance. It is eschatologically oriented.

The choice for the interpreter is to decide whether the text is speaking eschatologically or personally. Is it corporate or individual in nature? Both are true from the perspective of biblical teaching in general. But what is the thrust of Acts 3? The emphasis on the message of the prophets suggests to me it is eschatological in nature. Peter is speaking to Israelites concerning the "restoration of Israel." This takes place before the door of repentance has been opened to the Gentiles (chap. 10-11). The text is historically located from the prophetic point of view at a stage where eschatological events are still to happen.
 
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