Barnpreacher
Puritan Board Junior
To my Amill and Postmill brothers,
I'm asking this question to get your dialogue and perspective on things. When someone takes a different theological or eschatological stance than I do I like to know why they believe what they believe. And pray the Lord could use it to help me if I'm in error on some point in my doctrine, or vice-versa.
My question is this: How do you take such passages as Ezekiel 40-48, Zechariah 13-14, Joel 3, Isaiah 24-27, Luke 1:32-33, and much of Revelation from a figurative sense? God spends so much time making it clear that in "this day" or "that day" he is going to "gather the nations together", "restore the remnant", etc.
He gets so specific with these passages, what's the point from an amill or postmill perspective? Why spend nine chapters in Ezekiel talking about a temple? (BTW - I don't believe that the sacrifices in the millennial kingdom have any redemptive value to them, just memorial.)
Why spend so much time talking about gathering the nations together at Jerusalem? Why talk about gathering them together into "a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon"?
So many things in O.T. books seem to be unfulfilled prophecy unless you take most of it figuratively. Why do you make the choice of taking most of the eschatological passages in the O.T. strictly from a figurative sense?
Again, just hoping to learn another perspective from the one I have studied all my life. Thanks.
I'm asking this question to get your dialogue and perspective on things. When someone takes a different theological or eschatological stance than I do I like to know why they believe what they believe. And pray the Lord could use it to help me if I'm in error on some point in my doctrine, or vice-versa.
My question is this: How do you take such passages as Ezekiel 40-48, Zechariah 13-14, Joel 3, Isaiah 24-27, Luke 1:32-33, and much of Revelation from a figurative sense? God spends so much time making it clear that in "this day" or "that day" he is going to "gather the nations together", "restore the remnant", etc.
He gets so specific with these passages, what's the point from an amill or postmill perspective? Why spend nine chapters in Ezekiel talking about a temple? (BTW - I don't believe that the sacrifices in the millennial kingdom have any redemptive value to them, just memorial.)
Why spend so much time talking about gathering the nations together at Jerusalem? Why talk about gathering them together into "a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon"?
So many things in O.T. books seem to be unfulfilled prophecy unless you take most of it figuratively. Why do you make the choice of taking most of the eschatological passages in the O.T. strictly from a figurative sense?
Again, just hoping to learn another perspective from the one I have studied all my life. Thanks.