The Angel of the Lord

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B.L.Smith

Puritan Board Freshman
I'm reading a book titled The Angel of the Lord. It's a biblical, historical, and theological study written by, Matt Foreman & Doug Van Dorn. They make a very compelling case, in-that Jesus Christ is the Angel of the Lord. Was hoping to get some feedback on what you all think on that.
 
Yes. It seems clear from various passages in the OT, starting with Hagar that the Angel of the Lord is God. And since God the Father has not and cannot been seen (John 6:46) and the Holy Spirit doesn’t appear to take fleshly form, one can infer or be persuaded the angel of the Lord is Christ by deductive reasoning.
 
I'm reading a book titled The Angel of the Lord. It's a biblical, historical, and theological study written by, Matt Foreman & Doug Van Dorn. They make a very compelling case, in-that Jesus Christ is the Angel of the Lord. Was hoping to get some feedback on what you all think on that.
The Son of God and Second Person of the blessed Trinity is the supreme revelation of God. We may justly conclude that any vision of God in the Old Testament is by the particular agency of the Son, whose office it is to reveal him to mankind. In short, I would agree with Matt Foreman and Doug Van Dorn.
 
In Joshua, Joshua meets the Angel of the Lord and worships him. The Angel does not stop him. When John worshipped an angel in Revelation, he was chastised by the angel. It seems clear that the appearances of God as the Angel are Christophanies.
 
Yes, the Angel of the Lord in the Old Testament appears to be God himself, and the Son's office within the Trinity makes it likely that he was the Son in particular.

I think it less likely that the angel in Revelation was Christ, since Christ already appears in that book in a different form.
 
Yes, the Angel of the Lord in the Old Testament appears to be God himself, and the Son's office within the Trinity makes it likely that he was the Son in particular.

I think it less likely that the angel in Revelation was Christ, since Christ already appears in that book in a different form.
I apologize if my post insinuated Christ was the angel John bowed down to. My point was if the Angel that appeared in the Old Testament to Joshua and others was not God, he would not have condoned worship of himself
 
I apologize if my post insinuated Christ was the angel John bowed down to. My point was if the Angel that appeared in the Old Testament to Joshua and others was not God, he would not have condoned worship of himself
Ah. No need to apologize. It was me who read your post too quickly. I should have known you would not make that mistake, and read what you said more closely.
 
Thanks men for your feedback.
I find it interesting to survey the various appearances of the angel of the Lord, with the preincarnate Christ lens. He appears early on to stop Abraham from sacrificing his son (and Christ’s biological forefather) in or around the vicinity of Mount Golgotha and offers a substitutionary ram. He appears later In the same area to slay the Israelites in response to David’s census and prompts the site of the temple. He protects Jerusalem by slaying 185,000 Assyrians during the reign of Hezekiah and later pleads on behalf of Israel for God to restore them in (Zechariah 1:12) from their 70 year exile. And upon his incarnate arrival to Jerusalem, he would be crucified at the behest of the Jews.
 
To me, the tough part seems to be discerning which Old Testament angels are the Angel. Simply looking for the phrase "angel of the LORD" does not seem to be a sufficient test, since the various Bible authors do not seem consistent about always identifying a theophany by that title, nor about reserving that title only for theophanies. So I have doubts about Zechariah 1, for example, where the immediate context probably would not cause us to think the angel is divine, and only the wider context of the book (chapter 3 is more convincing) and the rest of the Old Testament might make us think that title signals divinity.

Does anyone here have a test we can apply to get a clearer answer, or must we simply live with some uncertainty?
 
Some see Michael the archangel as actually referring to Christ which is really interesting. Any thoughts on that?

On another note, the reading today was out of Acts 8, Philip is told by "the angel of the Lord" to go down through the desert. Though, that appears to truly be an angel seeing as Christ directly speaks to others in the book. And only a couple verses later it says that the Spirit told him to approach the Ethiopian's chariot. Some do not believe that "spirit" refers to the Holy Ghost but that it refers to that same angel of the Lord that appeared earlier. Thoughts on this?
 
From what I gather in Doug Van Dorn's book. A good test would be comparing the attributes of God with the Angel of the Lord. The angel of the Lord receives worship Josh 5: 13-15, speaks as Yahweh himself Exodus 3:6 -14, is identified as the appearing of God himself Judges 6:22, Judges 13: 21-22, bears God's special name Exodus 23:21, Judges 13:18, and has Yahweh's authority to redeem and judge. He appears in crucial passages as the central figure in the redemptive promises of God. The Angel of the Lord is distinguished from God, yet at the same time has unique and divine attributes. May have more information on Zachariah 1; still working through the book.
 
Some see Michael the archangel as actually referring to Christ which is really interesting. Any thoughts on that?

On another note, the reading today was out of Acts 8, Philip is told by "the angel of the Lord" to go down through the desert. Though, that appears to truly be an angel seeing as Christ directly speaks to others in the book. And only a couple verses later it says that the Spirit told him to approach the Ethiopian's chariot. Some do not believe that "spirit" refers to the Holy Ghost but that it refers to that same angel of the Lord that appeared earlier. Thoughts on this?
I am slightly persuaded that Michael the Archangel is Christ. There is a significant fabric of interconnecting verses that lead me to that conclusion. I’ll provide one for you to consider. Daniel 10:21: “But I will tell you what is inscribed in the book of truth: there is none who contends by my side against these except Michael, your prince.” Does not Christ contend for us? Would he leave our salvation in the hands of a mere created angel?

As for the Acts 8 reference, the ESV translates it as “an Angel of the Lord” - not “the Angel of the Lord”.
 
If the figure Daniel sees in 10:4-6 is the Divine Angel and if the hand that touches Daniel and speaks to him in 10:10-14 is the same person, then the Divine Angel cannot be Michael, because he speaks of Michael helping him. However it's possible that 10:4-6 is not the Divine Angel (though I would argue that it is). It's also possible that the figure switches in 10:10-14 and is a different angel than in 4-6 in which case the identity of the Divine Angel as Michael is still possible.
 
Hi BL, please fix yourself a signature so folks know how to address you. See under Useful links below for instructions.
If the figure Daniel sees in 10:4-6 is the Divine Angel and if the hand that touches Daniel and speaks to him in 10:10-14 is the same person, then the Divine Angel cannot be Michael, because he speaks of Michael helping him. However it's possible that 10:4-6 is not the Divine Angel (though I would argue that it is). It's also possible that the figure switches in 10:10-14 and is a different angel than in 4-6 in which case the identity of the Divine Angel as Michael is still possible.
 
If the figure Daniel sees in 10:4-6 is the Divine Angel and if the hand that touches Daniel and speaks to him in 10:10-14 is the same person, then the Divine Angel cannot be Michael, because he speaks of Michael helping him. However it's possible that 10:4-6 is not the Divine Angel (though I would argue that it is). It's also possible that the figure switches in 10:10-14 and is a different angel than in 4-6 in which case the identity of the Divine Angel as Michael is still possible.
I interpret the speaker as the angel Gabriel. Earlier in Chapter 8, there appears to be a similar alternating interaction between Gabriel and what appears to be Christ with Daniel.
 
Another possibility is that the figure who touches Daniel in verse 10,16,18, and who speaks to him is different from the figure in the vision of verse 4-7. Remember that in 8:16, the man over the stream had sent Gabriel to speak to Daniel Gabriel is described as "one having the appearance of a man" (8:15). In 8:18, it is Gabriel who, when Daniel "fell into a deep sleep with his face to the ground... touched" him and made him stand so likewise, in 10:10, when the hand touches him and raise him up speaks to him, later described as "one in likeness of the children of man... one having the appearance of a man" (10:16,18), it is possible that, after Daniels incredible vision of the man over the stream, this is again Gabriel coming to more directly interpret to Daniel.
 
To me, the tough part seems to be discerning which Old Testament angels are the Angel. Simply looking for the phrase "angel of the LORD" does not seem to be a sufficient test, since the various Bible authors do not seem consistent about always identifying a theophany by that title, nor about reserving that title only for theophanies. So I have doubts about Zechariah 1, for example, where the immediate context probably would not cause us to think the angel is divine, and only the wider context of the book (chapter 3 is more convincing) and the rest of the Old Testament might make us think that title signals divinity.

Does anyone here have a test we can apply to get a clearer answer, or must we simply live with some uncertainty?

It has been years but when I looked into this. If I remember "the" angel of The Lord was always consistent with God, and "an" angel of The Lord was consistent with an angel.
 
It has been years but when I looked into this. If I remember "the" angel of The Lord was always consistent with God, and "an" angel of The Lord was consistent with an angel.
I've heard of people doing that too, but isn't that difference in our English Bibles actually a choice made by the translators? I've never been trained in Hebrew, but I seem to recall hearing that the Hebrew text doesn't have either "the" or "an" in these passages. Translators rendering it in English have to pick either a definite or indefinite article based on their reading of the context. In fact, I believe that in the case of malak they have to decide between "angel" and "messenger" too. So if you're just looking at the Hebrew words, there's no difference between "messenger" and "regular angel" and "theophany angel." You have to figure it out (or guess at it) from context.

Or so I've heard. Perhaps someone actually trained in biblical Hebrew could confirm that.
 
Another possibility is that the figure who touches Daniel in verse 10,16,18, and who speaks to him is different from the figure in the vision of verse 4-7. Remember that in 8:16, the man over the stream had sent Gabriel to speak to Daniel Gabriel is described as "one having the appearance of a man" (8:15). In 8:18, it is Gabriel who, when Daniel "fell into a deep sleep with his face to the ground... touched" him and made him stand so likewise, in 10:10, when the hand touches him and raise him up speaks to him, later described as "one in likeness of the children of man... one having the appearance of a man" (10:16,18), it is possible that, after Daniels incredible vision of the man over the stream, this is again Gabriel coming to more directly interpret to Daniel.
I’m inclined to think in Daniel chapter 10; verses 5-9 describe Christ (possibly aka “Michael”), 10-15 involves Gabriel, 16-17 involves Christ, and 18-21 involves Gabriel.

There is a subtle difference in the descriptions for verses 16 (likeness) and 18 (appearance), which you referenced. I suspect the likeness of the person described in 16 indicates Christ as actually having like nature as man whereas the appearance of the person described in 18 indicates an angel (Gabriel) who is not man.
 
Some see Michael the archangel as actually referring to Christ which is really interesting. Any thoughts on that?

On another note, the reading today was out of Acts 8, Philip is told by "the angel of the Lord" to go down through the desert. Though, that appears to truly be an angel seeing as Christ directly speaks to others in the book. And only a couple verses later it says that the Spirit told him to approach the Ethiopian's chariot. Some do not believe that "spirit" refers to the Holy Ghost but that it refers to that same angel of the Lord that appeared earlier. Thoughts on this?
Isn't this what Jehovah witnesses believe? Don't they say Jesus is Michael the archangel?
 
Isn't this what Jehovah witnesses believe? Don't they say Jesus is Michael the archangel?

Yes but in reverse. They believe Jesus is a created being known as Michael. Whereas I'm talking about the belief that when the Scripture mentions Michael it is referring to Christ.
 
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