Scott
Puritan Board Graduate
Isa. 8:18 reads: "Here am I, and the children the LORD has given me. We are signs and symbols in Israel from the LORD Almighty, who dwells on Mount Zion." In the context, Isaiah appears to be speaking of himself and his two children, Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz and Shear-Jashub.
Hebrews 2 puts these words in the mouth of Christ, though: " . . . So Jesus is not ashamed to call them brothers. 12He says, 'I will declare your name to my brothers; in the presence of the congregation I will sing your praises.' 13And again, 'I will put my trust in him.' And again he says, 'Here am I, and the children God has given me.'"
In Heb. 2 the speaker appears to be Christ (vs. Isaiah in the original context) and the children seem to be Christ's spiritual children, as opposed to Isaiah's physical chidren.
It appears to me that Hebrews is interpreting Isaiah and the account of his children typologically. What do people think about this? How is the prophet Isaiah himself a type of Christ?
Scott
Hebrews 2 puts these words in the mouth of Christ, though: " . . . So Jesus is not ashamed to call them brothers. 12He says, 'I will declare your name to my brothers; in the presence of the congregation I will sing your praises.' 13And again, 'I will put my trust in him.' And again he says, 'Here am I, and the children God has given me.'"
In Heb. 2 the speaker appears to be Christ (vs. Isaiah in the original context) and the children seem to be Christ's spiritual children, as opposed to Isaiah's physical chidren.
It appears to me that Hebrews is interpreting Isaiah and the account of his children typologically. What do people think about this? How is the prophet Isaiah himself a type of Christ?
Scott