fralo4truth
Puritan Board Freshman
Let's suppose that someone held the belief, as strange or illogical as it may sound, that God had not predestinated ALL things, but only SOME things. Would this make them a deist with respect to those events that they stated God had not ordained? If I state for instance that my typing of this sentence was not decreed by God, then something other than God is the FIRST cause of it, correct? Is that not atleast a portion of deism's teachings?
Denial that some particular event has been predestinated is a denial of providence, the outworking of God's decree. Where there is no providence over this event, God has been removed from this event.
Just how close is the link between a denial of predestination with that of deism?
Could I even say that those who make free-will out to be the first cause of something which occurs (e.g. drinking a cup of coffee) guilty of giving semblance to deism, seeing that God has been banished from this particular event?
Or can the denial of God predestinating some particular event only be called Deism if it is maintained at the same time that this unordained act was brought about by the laws of nature?
Please correct me friends if I am in error.
Thank you.
Denial that some particular event has been predestinated is a denial of providence, the outworking of God's decree. Where there is no providence over this event, God has been removed from this event.
Just how close is the link between a denial of predestination with that of deism?
Could I even say that those who make free-will out to be the first cause of something which occurs (e.g. drinking a cup of coffee) guilty of giving semblance to deism, seeing that God has been banished from this particular event?
Or can the denial of God predestinating some particular event only be called Deism if it is maintained at the same time that this unordained act was brought about by the laws of nature?
Please correct me friends if I am in error.
Thank you.