The Heidelberg Catechism and the imputation of sin to Christ

[Sebastian Heck]

While preparing to preach on 1 Pet 2:24-25 I was struggling with the following question:

At what point in time were our sins (and Adam's) imputed to Christ?

I realize and agree with the Heidelberg Catechism where we confess in Question 37:

37. What do you understand by the word “suffered?”
That all the time He lived on earth, but especially at the end of His life, He bore, in body and soul, the wrath of God against the sin of the whole human race; in order that by His suffering, as the only atoning sacrifice, He might redeem our body and soul from everlasting damnation, and obtain for us the grace of God, righteousness, and eternal life."

I agree that Christ suffered "all his life", "under the law" and on account of a sinful world that despised him. But would we therefore say that our sins were imputed to Christ in his incarnation already?

Spurgeon seems to do this. In a sermon on the above passage, he says that Christ was an atoning sacrifice for sin all his life and that Christ carried our sin (on his back, as it were) all his life "up to the cross". Spurgeon rejects translations of 1 Pet 2:24 that say (like the ESV for example) that "He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree" but rather says Christ carried them "to the cross"...
(Not that Spurgeon is any authority for Reformed exegesis... It was simply brought to my attention by a congregant.)

So which is it: imputation at the cross or during Christ's entire lifetime or at the incarnation? Any thoughts?

 

[greenbaggins]

Murray's distinction here between redemption accomplished and redemption applied is very helpful at this point. The atoning death is the focal point of the imputation of believer's sins to Christ in a redemption accomplished sense. Yes, Jesus was the Lamb of God all His life. He was bearing sin all His life. But the ultimate penalty of sin is death, and it is therefore at that point that we must say that Jesus bore our sins' ultimate penalty. However, that imputation does not become real to us until the moment we arrive at faith. That is when the Holy Spirit applies that imputation to us.

 

[Sebastian Heck]

Thanks, Lane.
The "redemption applied" part is clear enough. But 'm not sure how you'd answer my question: WHEN were our sins credited/imputed to Christ? Incarnation, entire life, death on the cross?
I am talking about the forensic, declarative act of God!

 

[greenbaggins]

Thanks, Lane.
The "redemption applied" part is clear enough. But 'm not sure how you'd answer my question: WHEN were our sins credited/imputed to Christ? Incarnation, entire life, death on the cross?
I am talking about the forensic, declarative act of God!

Maybe I wasn't clear enough. I thought I was saying that the once for all declarative act of God happens on the cross, the focal point of Christ's sin-bearing on behalf of His people.

 

[Scott1]

Not sure if this directly addresses the point, but perhaps is helpful to look at the way the Westminster Confession uses the term.

There are many Scripture proofs that use some form of the word "impute."


Westminster Confession of Faith

Chapter VI
Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and the Punishment thereof

III. They being the root of all mankind, the guilt of this sin was imputed;128 and the same death in sin, and corrupted nature, conveyed to all their posterity descending from them by ordinary generation.129

Chapter XI
Of Justification

I. Those whom God effectually calls, He also freely justifies;234 not by infusing righteousness into them, but by pardoning their sins, and by accounting and accepting their persons as righteous; not for any thing wrought in them, or done by them, but for Christ's sake alone; nor by imputing faith itself, the act of
believing, or any other evangelical obedience to them, as their righteousness; but by imputing the obedience and satisfaction of Christ unto them,235 they receiving and resting on Him and His righteousness by faith; which faith they have not of themselves, it is the gift of God.236

 

[Sebastian Heck]

Scott, no, you're right. It doesn't really address my question as it doesn't talk about the "point in time" of the imputation of our sin to Christ (!).

Lane, right on! I got you now - and do think I must agree.

 

[Andrew P.C.]

Colossians 2
13When you were dead in your transgressions and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive together with Him, having forgiven us all our transgressions,

14having canceled out the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.

I'm curious how one would interpret this passage in regard to your question. I understand that application of Christ's righteousness comes through the Holy Spirit but would this passage be suggesting that our sins were imputed to Him at the cross? The application of our sins being imputed to Christ.

 

[Prufrock]

Mr. Heck, as I understand our Reformed tradition, as to the question was "imputation at the cross or during Christ's entire lifetime or at the incarnation?", it seems most proper to include the entire duration of Christ's humiliation here; for since we believe that the sufferings he underwent through the course of his humiliation were satisfactory, it follows that they are only satisfactory punishments if they are made on account of sin, whether actual or imputed; and since Christ underwent nothing satisfactory but upon compact to undertake these things for the elect, their sins being imputed to him, then Christ was bearing our sins or having them imputed to him throughout the whole.

(Though, of course, as Rev. Keister said above, with the culmination of all this being at the cross.)

 

[MW]

God sent His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, Rom. 8:3. It is impossible to think of Christ's humanity apart from the vicarious nature of that assumed humanity.

 

[py3ak]

W.G.T. Shedd says:

"This suffering was the culmination of his piacular sorrow, but not the whole of it. Everything in his human and earthly career that was distressing belongs to his passive obedience. It is a true remark of Edwards, that the blood of Christ's circumcision was as really a part of his vicarious atonement, as the blood that flowed from his pierced side. And not only his suffering proper, but his humiliation, also, was expiatory because this was a kind of suffering."

I don't know where the Edwards statement he references comes from.

 

[Sebastian Heck]

God sent His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, Rom. 8:3. It is impossible to think of Christ's humanity apart from the vicarious nature of that assumed humanity.

So are you saying there is no such thing as a decisive ACT of God imputing our sins to Christ, but it simply happened in the incarnation? Honestly, I think that creates problems. But maybe I misunderstood you.

 

[MW]

God sent His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, Rom. 8:3. It is impossible to think of Christ's humanity apart from the vicarious nature of that assumed humanity.

So are you saying there is no such thing as a decisive ACT of God imputing our sins to Christ, but it simply happened in the incarnation? Honestly, I think that creates problems. But maybe I misunderstood you.

The ACT is God the Father sending His Son in the likeness of sinful flesh. The ACT is the Son being made of a woman, made under the law, to redeem them that were under the law. The ACT is the Holy Ghost coming upon the Virgin to create the human nature of Him that saves His people from their sins. There is nothing more MOMENTOUS than that! An ACT engaged by the everlasting covenant of peace, effected in the incarnation, and executed at every stage of our Lord's life and death.

 

[Sebastian Heck]

I agree with you, Matthew, tha these are the decisive acts of the Trinity for our salvation. But wouldn't we say that analogous to the legal, forensic declaration at a specific point in time where we were declared by God to be justified in His sight, there is also some such specific point in time where God specifically, legally, forensically, and effectively declared our sins to be imputed to Christ?

 

[Romans922]

Sorry to be off topic, but what does the Catechism mean where it says, "...He bore, in body and soul, the wrath of God against the sin of the whole human race..."?

 

[MW]

I agree with you, Matthew, tha these are the decisive acts of the Trinity for our salvation. But wouldn't we say that analogous to the legal, forensic declaration at a specific point in time where we were declared by God to be justified in His sight, there is also some such specific point in time where God specifically, legally, forensically, and effectively declared our sins to be imputed to Christ?

Yes, the point in time is declared in Scripture to be the "sending" of the Son into the world.