The Holy One of Psalm 16 Help

ccravens

Puritan Board Freshman
Hello,

In my KJV and in the NKJV, in Psalm 16:10 it says "neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption." I'm wondering why "Holy One" is in caps. Is this in the Hebrew, and if so, did David recognize that he was speaking of the future Messiah?

Why is it not in caps in other versions? Editorial decision? Anyone know the translation history of this?

Thanks!
 
Hello,

In my KJV and in the NKJV, in Psalm 16:10 it says "neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption." I'm wondering why "Holy One" is in caps. Is this in the Hebrew, and if so, did David recognize that he was speaking of the future Messiah?

Why is it not in caps in other versions? Editorial decision? Anyone know the translation history of this?

Thanks!

The translators put it in caps.
 
I believe it is to indicate they understand this is a Messianic reference to Jesus Christ. Peter preaches most of this Psalm and emphasizes this verse in Acts 2 to prove by Christ's resurrection from the dead, which they were all witnesses to, therefore that Jesus must be the Messiah (Christ, "Anointed One") of Psalm 16:10. Here's my sermon on this (first for a seminary class of OT quoted in the NT, here for our church when I first arrived): https://www.sermonaudio.com/sermoninfo.asp?SID=92010013339. Specifically related to the last question, Peter says David knew he was a prophet speaking of Christ's resurrection in this verse according to Acts 2:29-31.

While the ESV and old Geneva have it lower case, by a quick perusal I see that the NAS and the Almeida Portuguese ("Santo" -- Spanish RVR has it lowercase) have it capitalized. I notice that all I reference here have it capitalized when quoting it in the NT in Acts 2:27 and 13:35 (though Tyndale doesn't, written simply as "holye"). Both verses in the Greek do not have it capitalized (neither in Psalm 16:10 in the OT, though there really isn't capitalization in Hebrew as its all essentially upper case the way I see it). Interestingly, in Psalm 2:2, "anointed" which is clearly also referring to the Messiah is lower case in the KJV (not the Portuguese and Spanish), but upper case in the rest I'm referencing including the ESV actually (old Geneva even translates it as "Christ"). Similarly, Psalm 2:7 has "Son" capitalized as it is in Acts 13:33 especially relevant related to the 13:35 reference above, including the old Geneva ("Sonne": Tyndale doesn't translate); the Portuguese also has it upper case ("Filho") but the Spanish lower ("hijo"). So while all recognize these as Messianic, they have variety even within the translations, on whether they capitalize each one. Easy for me to Monday morning quarterback here, but I think I would have made all references I note capitalized for consistency and quick reference.
 
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I believe it is to indicate they understand this is a Messianic reference to Jesus Christ. Peter preaches most of this Psalm and emphasizes this verse in Acts 2 to prove by Christ's resurrection from the dead, which they were all witnesses to, therefore that Jesus must be the Messiah (Christ, "Anointed One") of Psalm 16:10. Here's my sermon on this (first for a seminary class of OT quoted in the NT, here for our church when I first arrived): https://www.sermonaudio.com/sermoninfo.asp?SID=92010013339. Specifically related to the last question, Peter says David knew he was a prophet speaking of Christ's resurrection in this verse according to Acts 2:29-31.

While the ESV and old Geneva have it lower case, by a quick perusal I see that the NAS and the Almeida Portuguese ("Santo" -- Spanish RVR has it lowercase) have it capitalized. I notice that all I reference here have it capitalized when quoting it in the NT in Acts 2:27 and 13:35 (though Tyndale doesn't, written simply as "holye"). Both verses in the Greek do not have it capitalized (neither in Psalm 16:10 in the OT, though there really isn't capitalization in Hebrew as its all essentially upper case the way I see it). Interestingly, in Psalm 2:2, "anointed" which is clearly also referring to the Messiah is lower case in the KJV (not the Portuguese and Spanish), but upper case in the rest I'm referencing including the ESV actually (old Geneva even translates it as "Christ"). Similarly, Psalm 2:7 has "Son" capitalized as it is in Acts 13:33 especially relevant related to the 13:35 reference above, including the old Geneva ("Sonne": Tyndale doesn't translate); the Portuguese also has it upper case ("Filho") but the Spanish lower ("hijo"). So while all recognize these as Messianic, they have variety even within the translations, on whether they capitalize each one. Easy for me to Monday morning quarterback here, but I think I would have made all references I note capitalized for consistency and quick reference.

Thanks for that info. So am I to understand that it was not in caps in the Hebrew, but the translators obviously believed it to be a messianic reference, so they put it in caps? But obviously not all translators did this, as you've shown. Thanks for the good info!
 
There are no caps in Hebrew, so it is translator's call. The Hebrew is open ended as to whether this verse has any reference to David himself as well as the Messiah; generally, avoiding capitalization leaves both interpretive options open, where capitalization closes off an interpretive option, making it purely prophetic. That's why the CSB felt uncapitalized was better ("your faithful one"), even though HCSB had the capitalization "your Faithful One". hasid usually refers generically to godly people in the psalms (e.g. Ps 18:26), and it is not self-evident in the original context of Psalm 16 that it excludes reference to David. Essentially, David is simply affirming his confidence in Psalm 86:2: "Protect my life, for I am a hasid; you are my God; save your servant who trusts in you". Of course, Psalm 16 finds a far richer and more profound fulfillment in Christ, as many of the psalms do, as Peter points out, and translations that capitalize it are seeking to highlight that connection.
 
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