"The Lord's Prayer" and praying in the Son's Name

[Romans922]

Had a man from my congregation ask me after a sermon on prayer, why we are to pray in Jesus' name knowing that Jesus says to do this, but that when he taught the disciples to pray like this....(Lord's Prayer), He doesn't teach them to pray in Jesus' name.

I have never thought about it, so I was wondering what you guys think about this.

 

[Scott1]

Christ is clearly prophet, priest and king- and that means intercessor.

Praying to Him as intercessor became clearer upon His resurrection and ascension, e.g. when our Lord, and the Apostles began making such thing clear in light of His resurrection, looking at our risen Savior.

Matthew 28
18And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

 

[sastark]

Praying "in Jesus name" is not the same as saying the words "in Jesus name. Amen." at the end of a prayer.

I would say that Jesus does teach the disciples to pray "in His name" in the Lord's Prayer: He teaches His disciples to pray by His authority.

 

[Jack K]

As Seth nicely pointed out, the principle behind praying in Jesus' name is present in the Lord's Prayer. It is particularly there in the opening line, "Our Father." By what right do we call God our Father and presume that our prayers are heard and get the response a son would get? By our connection to the Eternal Son, in whom we pray.

 

[Joseph Scibbe]

Seth hit it on the head. Saying "In Jesus name" is not the same as praying in Jesus name. I can get pagans to say the words "in Jesus name' but that totally lacks the "authority" and "authenticity" of actually praying in the name. The whole "Our Father" line shows that we are praying along with Jesus in His name.